ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. Which condition involves the enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle of the heart, leading to reduced pumping ability?
- A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dilated cardiomyopathy. Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by the enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle of the heart, which results in a reduced ability to pump blood effectively. Choice B, Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, involves thickening of the heart muscle, not enlargement. Choice C, Restrictive cardiomyopathy, is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, not enlargement. Choice D, Pericarditis, refers to inflammation of the pericardium, the lining surrounding the heart, and does not involve enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle.
2. What test evaluates the heart's response to physical stress, often involving exercise on a treadmill while monitoring the heart?
- A. Stress test
- B. Echocardiogram
- C. Holter monitor
- D. CT angiography
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A stress test, also known as an exercise stress test, evaluates the heart's response to physical stress by monitoring its activity during exercise, typically on a treadmill. This test helps assess the heart's performance, detect coronary artery disease, and evaluate the effectiveness of heart treatments. Echocardiogram (choice B) is an ultrasound of the heart that provides detailed images of the heart's structure and function, but it does not involve physical stress like a stress test. Holter monitor (choice C) is a device for continuously monitoring the heart's rhythm and rate over a period (usually 24-48 hours), not during exercise. CT angiography (choice D) is a diagnostic test that uses X-rays to visualize blood vessels but does not involve physical stress like a stress test.
3. The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Headache
- B. Flushing
- C. Dizziness
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Headache. Nitrates commonly cause headaches as a side effect due to vasodilation. Flushing, dizziness, and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates. Flushing is more related to the dilation of blood vessels closer to the skin's surface, dizziness could occur but is not as common as headaches, and nausea is a less typical side effect of nitrates.
4. The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker. What is the primary effect of this medication on the cardiovascular system?
- A. Decreases heart rate
- B. Increases heart rate
- C. Increases blood pressure
- D. Decreases blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Choice A, 'Decreases heart rate,' is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not significantly affect heart rate. Choice B, 'Increases heart rate,' is incorrect as calcium channel blockers do not have a primary effect of increasing heart rate. Choice C, 'Increases blood pressure,' is incorrect as the primary effect of calcium channel blockers is to decrease blood pressure by vasodilation.
5. Which of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease of the airways that causes episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and coughing?
- A. Asthma
- B. Bronchitis
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Emphysema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Asthma is the correct answer. It is a chronic inflammatory disease of the airways characterized by episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and coughing. These symptoms are often triggered by allergens or exercise. Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchial tubes, but it is not typically chronic or involve the same triggers as asthma. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs, and emphysema is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) often caused by smoking.
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