Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

• A. Decreases heart rate
• B. Increases heart rate
• C. Increases blood pressure
• D. Decreases blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

2. What test uses sound waves to create images of the heart and assess its structure and function?

• A. Echocardiogram
• B. MRI
• C. CT scan
• D. X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An echocardiogram is the correct answer because it is a test specifically designed to use sound waves to create images of the heart, allowing healthcare providers to assess both its structure and function, as well as to detect any abnormalities. MRI (Choice B), CT scan (Choice C), and X-ray (Choice D) do not primarily use sound waves for imaging the heart; therefore, they are not the most appropriate choices for this scenario.

3. Which chronic respiratory condition is characterized by the narrowing and inflammation of the airways, leading to difficulty breathing?

• A. Asthma
• B. COPD
• C. Bronchitis
• D. Pneumonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asthma is the correct answer. It is a chronic respiratory condition where the airways become inflamed and narrowed, leading to episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and coughing. Asthma is characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, differentiating it from COPD, which involves irreversible airflow limitation. Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchial tubes without the same reversible airflow obstruction seen in asthma. Pneumonia is an infection of the lung tissue and does not involve chronic inflammation and narrowing of the airways like asthma.

4. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement.
• B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
• D. Administer Digibind.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

5. Which term refers to a condition where the blood supply to part of the heart muscle is blocked, often referred to as a heart attack?

• A. Myocardial infarction
• B. Arrhythmia
• C. Stroke
• D. Aneurysm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, myocardial infarction. A myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when the blood supply to part of the heart muscle is blocked, often by a blood clot. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because arrhythmia refers to an irregular heartbeat, stroke involves the interruption of blood flow to the brain, and an aneurysm is a bulge in a blood vessel.

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