Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

• A. Decreases heart rate
• B. Increases heart rate
• C. Increases blood pressure
• D. Decreases blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

2. What is the condition where the lung collapses due to air leaking into the space between the lung and chest wall?

• A. Pneumothorax
• B. Pleural effusion
• C. Pulmonary fibrosis
• D. Lung cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pneumothorax is the correct answer. It is the collapse of a lung due to air leaking into the space between the lung and chest wall. This condition often requires emergency treatment. Choice B, Pleural effusion, is the buildup of excess fluid between the layers of the pleura outside the lung, not air. Choice C, Pulmonary fibrosis, is a lung disease characterized by scarring and thickening of lung tissue, not related to lung collapse. Choice D, Lung cancer, is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lung, not directly causing lung collapse.

3. What is a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are blocked or delayed, leading to a slower or irregular heartbeat?

• A. Heart block
• B. Atrial fibrillation
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heart block is the correct answer. It is a condition where the electrical impulses in the heart are blocked or delayed, resulting in a slower or irregular heartbeat. This can lead to symptoms like dizziness, fainting, or other issues. Atrial fibrillation (B) is characterized by rapid, irregular heartbeats. Tachycardia (C) is a condition where the heart rate is too fast. Bradycardia (D) is the opposite of tachycardia, where the heart rate is too slow.

4. Which condition is characterized by chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle?

• A. Angina
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Pericarditis
• D. Arrhythmia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Angina. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, often due to coronary artery disease. Choice B, Myocardial infarction, involves the death of heart muscle tissue due to a lack of blood supply, presenting with symptoms similar to angina but more severe. Pericarditis (Choice C) is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, which may cause chest pain but is not primarily due to reduced blood flow. Arrhythmia (Choice D) refers to abnormal heart rhythms but is not directly related to chest pain due to reduced blood flow.

5. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to a client with a heart rate of 50 bpm. What is the priority action?

• A. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
• C. Decrease the dose of the beta blocker.
• D. Monitor the client’s heart rate and reassess in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 50 bpm is already low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate, potentially causing adverse effects like bradycardia or heart block. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) can exacerbate the low heart rate. Decreasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) may not be sufficient to address the potential harm. Monitoring the client’s heart rate and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) may delay necessary interventions if the heart rate drops further. Therefore, the priority is to hold the medication and seek guidance from the healthcare provider.

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