Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

• A. Decreases heart rate
• B. Increases heart rate
• C. Increases blood pressure
• D. Decreases blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

2. Which structure serves as the normal pacemaker of the heart?

• A. SA node
• B. AV node
• C. Purkinje fibers
• D. Atria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the SA node. The sinoatrial (SA) node is known as the natural pacemaker of the heart as it generates electrical impulses initiating each heartbeat. The SA node is located in the right atrium and sets the rhythm and rate of the heartbeat. The AV node (choice B) is responsible for delaying the electrical impulse to allow the atria to contract before the ventricles. Purkinje fibers (choice C) are specialized cardiac fibers responsible for the rapid conduction of impulses to the myocardial cells, and the atria (choice D) are the upper chambers of the heart involved in receiving blood from the veins.

3. What test measures the pressure in the arteries during the contraction and relaxation of the heart?

• A. Blood pressure test
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)
• C. Spirometry
• D. Pulse oximetry

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blood pressure test.' This test measures the pressure in the arteries during the contraction (systolic) and relaxation (diastolic) phases of the heart, providing important information about heart health. Choice B, 'Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG),' records the heart's electrical activity and is not specifically related to measuring arterial pressure. Choice C, 'Spirometry,' assesses lung function by measuring airflow. Choice D, 'Pulse oximetry,' measures oxygen saturation in the blood, not arterial pressure.

4. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer potassium supplements.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to withhold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further management. Option B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen the hyperkalemia. Option C is incorrect as continuing spironolactone can lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Option D is incorrect as increasing the dose of spironolactone would be inappropriate in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client receiving lidocaine IV. What side effect is the healthcare provider most concerned about?

• A. Severe headache
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Seizures
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Seizures are the most concerning side effect of lidocaine IV administration due to its potential to indicate lidocaine toxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular collapse. Headache, nausea, and tremors are not typically associated with lidocaine IV and are less concerning compared to seizures in this context.

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