Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

• A. Decreases heart rate
• B. Increases heart rate
• C. Increases blood pressure
• D. Decreases blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

2. What condition involves a weakened and bulging aorta, the main artery in the body, potentially leading to rupture?

• A. Aortic aneurysm
• B. Arterial stenosis
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aortic aneurysm is a condition characterized by the weakening and bulging of the aorta, the body's main artery. If left untreated, this bulging may lead to a rupture, causing severe complications. Arterial stenosis refers to the narrowing of an artery, not the weakening and bulging seen in an aortic aneurysm. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage in the pulmonary artery, which is different from the weakening and bulging in an aortic aneurysm. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, not related to the condition described in the question.

3. The client is receiving intravenous dopamine. What is the most important nursing assessment?

• A. Monitor heart rate and rhythm
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Monitor respiratory rate
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate and rhythm when a client is receiving intravenous dopamine. Dopamine is known to potentially cause arrhythmias, making this assessment crucial. While monitoring blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are important nursing assessments, they are not the most critical when dopamine is being administered.

4. The client is on hydrochlorothiazide and digoxin. What effect can the nurse expect?

• A. Hydrochlorothiazide increases digoxin levels.
• B. Hydrochlorothiazide decreases digoxin levels.
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide decreases potassium, increasing the risk of digoxin toxicity.
• D. Digoxin can increase the effectiveness of hydrochlorothiazide.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can decrease potassium levels, which in turn can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin typically doesn't impact hydrochlorothiazide levels or effectiveness, making choices A, B, and D incorrect. Choice A stating that hydrochlorothiazide increases digoxin levels is inaccurate. Choice B suggesting that hydrochlorothiazide decreases digoxin levels is also incorrect. Choice D, stating that digoxin can increase the effectiveness of hydrochlorothiazide, is not a typical interaction seen between these medications.

5. The client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache.
• B. Hold the next dose of nitroglycerin.
• C. Discontinue the nitroglycerin immediately.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Administering acetaminophen can help relieve the headache. Holding the next dose of nitroglycerin (Choice B) may not address the current headache, and discontinuing nitroglycerin immediately (Choice C) without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous due to the potential for rebound hypertension. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is not necessary for a common side effect like a headache, and the nurse can manage this symptom independently.

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