Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

• A. Decreases heart rate
• B. Increases heart rate
• C. Increases blood pressure
• D. Decreases blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

2. Which condition involves the body's immune system attacking the lungs and kidneys, causing severe respiratory and renal damage?

• A. Goodpasture syndrome
• B. Sarcoidosis
• C. Wegener's granulomatosis
• D. Interstitial lung disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Goodpasture syndrome is the correct answer. It is an autoimmune disease characterized by the immune system attacking the lungs and kidneys, leading to bleeding in the lungs and kidney failure. Sarcoidosis primarily affects the lungs and lymph nodes, not the kidneys. Wegener's granulomatosis affects the lungs, sinuses, and kidneys, but it is characterized by inflammation of blood vessels. Interstitial lung disease involves scarring of the lung tissue, not direct immune system attacks on the lungs and kidneys.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

• A. PT/INR
• B. aPTT
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

4. What is the procedure to remove a sample of tissue from the lung for examination under a microscope?

• A. Lung biopsy
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Thoracentesis
• D. Lobectomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, lung biopsy. A lung biopsy involves removing a small sample of lung tissue for examination under a microscope to diagnose lung conditions. Choice B, bronchoscopy, is a procedure where a thin, flexible tube with a light and camera is inserted into the airways to view the lungs. This procedure is more for diagnostic purposes and not specifically for tissue removal. Choice C, thoracentesis, is a procedure to remove fluid from the pleural space around the lungs for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, not for tissue biopsy. Choice D, lobectomy, is a surgical procedure to remove a lobe of the lung, usually done to treat conditions like lung cancer or severe infections, but it does not involve removing tissue for microscopic examination.

5. What is a condition characterized by the presence of air or gas in the pleural space, leading to the collapse of the lung?

• A. Pneumothorax
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Atelectasis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Pneumothorax. Pneumothorax occurs when air or gas accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. This condition can result in symptoms such as chest pain and difficulty breathing. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, usually caused by a blood clot. Pleural effusion (choice C) is the accumulation of excess fluid in the pleural space, not air or gas. Atelectasis (choice D) refers to the collapse or closure of a lung resulting in reduced or absent gas exchange.

Similar Questions