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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers
1. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?
- A. Decreases heart rate
- B. Increases heart rate
- C. Increases blood pressure
- D. Decreases blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.
2. What is a condition where the heart's valves do not function properly, leading to disrupted blood flow within the heart?
- A. Valvular heart disease
- B. Myocarditis
- C. Endocarditis
- D. Aneurysm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Valvular heart disease is the correct answer. It occurs when the heart's valves malfunction, leading to disrupted blood flow within the heart. Myocarditis refers to inflammation of the heart muscle, not specifically related to valve function. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, not necessarily caused by valve malfunction. Aneurysm is the abnormal bulging of a blood vessel, not directly related to heart valve function.
3. Which type of medication helps to reduce the workload on the heart by slowing down the heart rate?
- A. Beta-blocker
- B. Calcium channel blocker
- C. Diuretic
- D. ACE inhibitor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers are medications that work by blocking the action of hormones like adrenaline, thereby reducing the heart rate and the workload on the heart. This makes them effective in managing high blood pressure and various heart conditions. Calcium channel blockers work by relaxing blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload, but they do not primarily slow down the heart rate. Diuretics help the body get rid of excess salt and water by increasing urine production, which can lower blood pressure but not by slowing down the heart rate. ACE inhibitors work by relaxing blood vessels, not by directly affecting heart rate.
4. What is a condition where the heart muscle becomes abnormally enlarged, thickened, or stiffened, often leading to heart failure?
- A. Cardiomyopathy
- B. Pericarditis
- C. Aortic stenosis
- D. Mitral valve prolapse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement, thickening, or stiffening of the heart muscle, which can lead to heart failure. Pericarditis (choice B) is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, not directly related to heart muscle enlargement. Aortic stenosis (choice C) is the narrowing of the aortic valve opening, affecting blood flow from the heart, but not directly related to heart muscle enlargement. Mitral valve prolapse (choice D) is a condition where the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle doesn't close properly, causing blood to leak backward, and is not directly related to heart muscle enlargement.
5. The nurse is caring for a client on heparin. What is the most important lab value to monitor?
- A. aPTT
- B. INR
- C. Platelet count
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: aPTT. When a client is on heparin therapy, monitoring the aPTT is crucial. The aPTT helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing blood clots and guides dose adjustments as needed. INR (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) is important to assess for potential bleeding disorders or thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor for heparin therapy. Hemoglobin (Choice D) is essential for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but is not the most important lab value to monitor when a client is on heparin.
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