the client is on warfarin and has an inr of 15 what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam Questions

1. The client is on warfarin and has an INR of 1.5. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the client may be at risk of clot formation. The nurse's priority action should be to hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent further reduction of the INR. Increasing the dose could potentially lead to an increased risk of bleeding, and continuing the current dose may not be sufficient to bring the INR within the therapeutic range. Monitoring the client's INR closely is important but not the priority action in this scenario.

2. Which procedure is used to remove excess fluid or air from the pleural space, helping to relieve pressure on the lungs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a procedure specifically designed to remove excess fluid or air from the pleural space in the chest. This process helps to relieve pressure on the lungs and improve breathing. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not to remove fluid from the pleural space. Chest X-ray (Choice C) is an imaging test that provides a picture of the structures inside the chest, including the lungs, heart, and bones. Arterial blood gas (ABG) test (Choice D) is a blood test that measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, providing information about how well the lungs are working, but it does not involve removing excess fluid or air from the pleural space.

3. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.

4. What type of heart disease is characterized by the heart muscle becoming enlarged and weakened, reducing its ability to pump blood effectively?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dilated cardiomyopathy. Dilated cardiomyopathy is a type of heart disease where the heart muscle becomes enlarged and weakened, reducing its ability to pump blood effectively, which can lead to heart failure. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (B) is characterized by abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, not enlargement. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (C) involves the heart muscle becoming stiff and less flexible, limiting its ability to fill with blood properly. Myocarditis (D) is inflammation of the heart muscle, which can affect the heart's function but is different from dilated cardiomyopathy.

5. Which medication is used to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood, reducing the risk of stroke and heart attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anticoagulant.' Anticoagulants are medications specifically designed to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood, which effectively reduces the risk of stroke, heart attack, and other cardiovascular events. Choices B, C, and D, which are ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, respectively, do not have the primary mechanism of action to prevent blood clot formation. ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers are commonly used for managing hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions by different mechanisms of action.

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