ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. The client is on warfarin and has an INR of 1.5. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Continue the current dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the client may be at risk of clot formation. The nurse's priority action should be to hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent further reduction of the INR. Increasing the dose could potentially lead to an increased risk of bleeding, and continuing the current dose may not be sufficient to bring the INR within the therapeutic range. Monitoring the client's INR closely is important but not the priority action in this scenario.
2. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client's son based on the information provided?
- A. Risk for other-directed violence
- B. Disturbed sleep pattern
- C. Caregiver role strain
- D. Social isolation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Caregiver role strain.' In the scenario presented, the son expresses that his father's constant confusion, incontinence, and tendency to wander are intolerable. These challenges indicate that the son is experiencing strain in his role as a caregiver. 'Risk for other-directed violence' is not appropriate because there is no indication of violent behavior. 'Disturbed sleep pattern' is not the most relevant nursing diagnosis given the information provided. 'Social isolation' is not the most appropriate choice as the son's concerns are related to the challenges of caregiving, not isolation.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery and has an indwelling urinary catheter that is draining dark yellow urine at 25 ml/hr. What intervention should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Clamp the catheter.
- B. Administer a fluid bolus.
- C. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
- D. Initiate continuous bladder irrigation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should anticipate initiating continuous bladder irrigation. Dark yellow urine output at a rate of 25 ml/hr following abdominal surgery may indicate urinary stasis or obstruction, which could lead to complications like urinary retention. Continuous bladder irrigation helps prevent catheter obstruction and manage urinary retention by ensuring patency and promoting urine flow. Clamping the catheter (Choice A) could lead to urinary stasis and should be avoided. Administering a fluid bolus (Choice B) is not indicated solely based on the urine color and output described. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice C) may be necessary for assessing infection but does not directly address the issue of urinary stasis or obstruction.
4. During a well-child checkup, a mother tells Nurse Rio about a recent situation in which her child needed to be disciplined by her husband. The child was slapped in the face for not getting her husband breakfast on Saturday, despite being told on Thursday never to prepare food for him. Nurse Rio analyzes the family system and concludes it is dysfunctional. All of the following factors contribute to this dysfunction except:
- A. Conflictual relationships between parents.
- B. Inconsistent communication patterns.
- C. Rigid, authoritarian roles.
- D. Use of violence to establish control.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a dysfunctional family system, conflictual relationships, inconsistent communication patterns, and the use of violence to establish control are factors contributing to dysfunction. However, rigid, authoritarian roles, though also dysfunctional, are not directly linked to the use of violence for control.
5. A patient is prescribed warfarin therapy for an artificial heart valve. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for a therapeutic effect of warfarin?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Bleeding time
- D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor Prothrombin time (PT) when a patient is on warfarin therapy. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and PT is used to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication. Hemoglobin (Choice A) is not directly affected by warfarin therapy and does not reflect its therapeutic effect. Bleeding time (Choice C) measures the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a standardized cut and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
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