Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a central vasodilator and peripheral vasoconstrictor?

• A. Sympathetic nervous system
• B. Parasympathetic nervous system
• C. Norepinephrine
• D. Acetylcholine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is a branch of the autonomic nervous system that is responsible for the fight-or-flight response. It causes vasodilation in central vessels to increase blood flow to vital organs during stress or exercise, while inducing vasoconstriction in peripheral vessels to redirect blood to essential areas. Norepinephrine and acetylcholine are neurotransmitters associated with the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, respectively, but they are not themselves central vasodilators and peripheral vasoconstrictors.

2. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client, what is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. Platelet count
• B. aPTT
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. INR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox), it is crucial to monitor the platelet count because enoxaparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, which is a decrease in platelet count that can lead to increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring the platelet count allows for early detection of this potential complication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aPTT, Hemoglobin, and INR are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically when administering enoxaparin.

3. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Increased cardiac output
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.

4. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

5. What is a device that delivers a fine spray of medication into the airways?

• A. Nebulizer
• B. Inhaler
• C. Oxygen concentrator
• D. Peak flow meter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nebulizer is a device that converts liquid medication into a fine mist, allowing it to be inhaled directly into the lungs. This makes it the correct answer to the question. Choice B, an inhaler, delivers medication in a different form - as a pressurized dose that needs to be inhaled. Choice C, an oxygen concentrator, is used to deliver oxygen to patients with breathing difficulties but does not deliver medication. Choice D, a peak flow meter, is used to measure how fast air can be blown out of the lungs and is not involved in delivering medication.

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