ATI RN
Physical Exam Cardiovascular System
1. What test measures the electrical activity of the heart to detect arrhythmias and other heart conditions?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Stress test
- D. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) is used to measure the heart's electrical activity, aiding in the detection of arrhythmias and other heart conditions. Choice B, a chest X-ray, is not used to measure electrical activity but to visualize the structures of the chest. Choice C, a stress test, evaluates the heart's response to exertion and is not primarily focused on measuring electrical activity. Choice D, an arterial blood gas (ABG) test, is used to assess oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood, not the heart's electrical activity.
2. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.
3. Which situations are classified as natural disasters?
- A. Blizzards
- B. A, C
- C. Volcanic eruptions
- D. Structural collapse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Blizzards and volcanic eruptions are both examples of natural disasters caused by natural forces such as extreme weather conditions and tectonic activities. On the other hand, structural collapse is typically a result of man-made factors like poor construction or maintenance. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as only blizzards and volcanic eruptions are classified as natural disasters.
4. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?
- A. 0.40 FTEs
- B. 17.0 FTEs
- C. 0.05 FTEs
- D. 1.0 FTEs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours รท 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.
5. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take my medication only when I feel dizzy.
- B. I will check my blood pressure at least once a week.
- C. I will limit my saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories.
- D. I will take my medication only when I have symptoms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories is a crucial component of the dietary management for hypertension. This dietary modification helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because medication adherence should not be based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is inadequate as blood pressure monitoring should be more frequent, preferably daily, for effective management of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because medication for hypertension should be taken consistently as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.
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