Nursing Elites

1. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer a potassium supplement.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: With a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L, which is high, the priority action for the nurse is to hold the spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, it is crucial to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia by discontinuing the medication. Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary for further guidance and potential adjustments to the treatment plan. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would be contraindicated since the client already has elevated potassium levels. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) can worsen hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be unsafe and exacerbate the high potassium levels.

2. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

3. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.

4. The client is on a calcium channel blocker. What is the expected effect on the heart?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Decreased blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is on a calcium channel blocker, the expected effect on the heart is a decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers work by dilating blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload, resulting in decreased blood pressure. Choice A, increased heart rate, is incorrect as calcium channel blockers actually have a negative chronotropic effect, reducing the heart rate. Choice C, increased blood pressure, is also incorrect because these medications are used to lower blood pressure.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Creatinine
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

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