the nurse is monitoring a client on an ace inhibitor what lab value is most important to monitor
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Nursing Elites

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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf

1. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

2. Which term describes a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is indeed a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria. This condition can increase the risk of stroke and heart failure. Choice B, Ventricular fibrillation, is incorrect because it refers to a life-threatening arrhythmia that occurs in the ventricles, not the atria. Choice C, Atrial flutter, is incorrect as it describes a different type of atrial arrhythmia characterized by a regular but fast heartbeat. Choice D, Sinus tachycardia, is incorrect because it is a normal increase in heart rate originating from the sinus node, not an abnormal rhythm.

3. A client on a beta blocker has a heart rate of 52 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 52 bpm is low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate, potentially causing harm. Therefore, withholding the medication and promptly informing the healthcare provider is crucial for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) can exacerbate the bradycardia. Increasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) would further suppress the heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) might delay necessary interventions and increase the risk of complications in a client with a heart rate of 52 bpm.

4. What is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the windpipe to assist with breathing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tracheostomy is the correct answer. It is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the windpipe (trachea) to assist with breathing. This procedure is commonly used for patients who require long-term ventilation support. Choice B, Lobectomy, involves the removal of a lobe of the lung and is not related to creating an opening in the windpipe. Choice C, Thoracotomy, is a surgical incision into the chest wall and is not specifically related to creating an opening in the windpipe. Choice D, Pleurodesis, is a procedure to treat recurrent pleural effusions by causing the pleural layers to stick together, and it is not related to creating an opening in the windpipe.

5. What does the PR interval measure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The PR interval measures the time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles. It is crucial in diagnosing heart rhythm disorders, as abnormalities in this interval can indicate conduction abnormalities between the atria and ventricles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, the QT interval represents the duration of ventricular repolarization, and the ST segment represents the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization.

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