Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Creatinine
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

2. What is the approximate stroke volume of the heart?

• A. Approximately 60 mL of blood per beat
• B. Approximately 70 mL of blood per beat
• C. Approximately 80 mL of blood per beat
• D. Approximately 90 mL of blood per beat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Approximately 70 mL of blood per beat. The stroke volume of the heart is typically around 70 mL, indicating the volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle with each contraction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the standard approximate stroke volume of the heart, which is around 70 mL per beat.

3. What is the condition where the heart's mitral valve does not close properly, allowing blood to leak backward into the left atrium?

• A. Mitral regurgitation
• B. Aortic stenosis
• C. Tricuspid regurgitation
• D. Pulmonary hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mitral regurgitation is the condition where the heart's mitral valve does not close properly, allowing blood to leak backward into the left atrium. This can result in symptoms like shortness of breath and fatigue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aortic stenosis, tricuspid regurgitation, and pulmonary hypertension involve different heart valves or conditions, not the mitral valve specifically.

4. What is a condition where the alveoli are gradually destroyed, leading to shortness of breath and reduced oxygen exchange?

• A. Emphysema
• B. Pulmonary fibrosis
• C. Pulmonary edema
• D. Lung cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Emphysema. Emphysema is a chronic lung condition where the alveoli (air sacs) in the lungs are damaged, reducing the surface area available for gas exchange. This destruction leads to symptoms like shortness of breath and reduced oxygen exchange. Choice B, pulmonary fibrosis, involves scarring and thickening of the lung tissue, not destruction of alveoli. Choice C, pulmonary edema, is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, not destruction of alveoli. Choice D, lung cancer, is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lungs, not destruction of alveoli.

5. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 1.8. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• B. Administer vitamin K.
• C. Hold the warfarin and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating the need for monitoring closely to ensure that the INR levels reach the desired therapeutic range. Increasing the dose of warfarin (Choice A) without proper monitoring may lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K (Choice B) is not typically recommended unless the client is experiencing major bleeding or requires rapid reversal of warfarin's effects. Holding the warfarin and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) may be necessary in certain situations, but the immediate action in this case should be to monitor the client's INR closely to guide further management.

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