Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density, which helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

2. What condition is a result of Polycythemia Vera, which involves excess red blood cells?

• A. Tissue ischemia & necrosis
• B. Chronic pancreatitis
• C. Low blood pressure & heart rate
• D. Increased numbers of infections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Polycythemia Vera, characterized by excess red blood cells, can cause tissue ischemia and necrosis due to the increased blood viscosity. This condition restricts blood flow, leading to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues and subsequent tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly associated with the pathophysiology of Polycythemia Vera.

3. What is the best method to identify which type of stroke the client has?

• A. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram STAT
• B. Obtain a blood specimen for electrolytes and blood cultures
• C. Ask the client about current allergies
• D. Obtain a cranial computerized tomogram (CT) STAT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a cranial computerized tomogram (CT) STAT. A cranial CT scan is the best method to quickly identify the type of stroke a client is experiencing. Options A, B, and C are not appropriate for identifying the type of stroke as they are not specific to assessing stroke types.

4. During childhood, the thymus decreases in size, and this is referred to as ______ atrophy.

• A. Physiologic
• B. Pathologic
• C. Disuse
• D. Neurogenic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Physiologic.' Physiologic atrophy is a normal part of development, like the reduction in thymus size during childhood. Pathologic atrophy (choice B) refers to tissue wasting due to disease, not a normal process like the reduction in thymus size. Disuse atrophy (choice C) results from a lack of physical activity or stimulation, which is not the case with thymus size reduction. Neurogenic atrophy (choice D) is caused by damage to or diseases of the nerves supplying the muscles, not related to the thymus size reduction seen in childhood.

5. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?

• A. Has your child received all recommended vaccinations?
• B. Has your child been feeding poorly or showing signs of constipation?
• C. Has your child been exposed to any sick individuals?
• D. Has your child been displaying signs of respiratory distress?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Poor feeding and constipation are common early symptoms of infant botulism, which is caused by a neurotoxin that impairs muscle function. Option A is unrelated to the presentation of botulism. Option C does not directly relate to the symptoms of botulism. Option D is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than the constellation of symptoms seen in botulism.

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