a patient is prescribed raloxifene evista for osteoporosis what is the primary therapeutic action of this medication
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ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density, which helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

2. In clients with a cognitive impairment disorder, the phenomenon of increased confusion in the early evening hours is called:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sundowning. Sundowning is a phenomenon where individuals with cognitive impairment experience increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or early evening. This often occurs in conditions like dementia. Choice A, Aphasia, refers to a language disorder affecting a person's ability to communicate. Choice B, Agnosia, is the inability to recognize objects. Choice D, Confabulation, is the production of false memories without the intention to deceive, often seen in conditions like Korsakoff's syndrome.

3. What is the primary function of the kidneys in acid-base balance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The kidneys are crucial in maintaining acid-base balance by removing hydrogen ions to decrease acidity and retaining bicarbonate ions to increase alkalinity. Choice B is incorrect because the conversion of ammonia into urea is related to nitrogen waste excretion, not acid-base balance. Choice C is incorrect as aldosterone regulates sodium levels, not acid-base balance. Choice D is also incorrect as renin is involved in regulating blood pressure, not acid-base balance.

4. Why does multiple sclerosis manifest as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system mistakenly attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This results in the formation of lesions that can occur in different parts of the central nervous system, leading to varied symptoms depending on the location of the damage. Choice A is the correct answer because it accurately describes the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe mechanisms or locations that are not associated with the pathogenesis of multiple sclerosis.

5. What is the cause of swelling during acute inflammation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swelling during acute inflammation is primarily caused by the accumulation of fluid exudate in the affected tissues. This fluid exudate contains proteins and cells that leak from blood vessels due to increased vascular permeability. Collagenase (Choice A) is an enzyme that breaks down collagen and is not directly responsible for swelling. Lymphocytic margination (Choice C) is the process where white blood cells line up along the blood vessel walls, which does not directly cause swelling. Anaerobic glycolysis (Choice D) is a metabolic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen and is not related to the mechanism of swelling in acute inflammation.

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