ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density, which helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
2. Which of the following is found in higher concentrations within intracellular fluid?
- A. Magnesium
- B. Sodium
- C. Chloride
- D. Bicarbonate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium is the correct answer as it is found in higher concentrations within intracellular fluid, where it plays vital roles in various cellular functions. Sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate are predominantly found in extracellular fluid rather than intracellular fluid, making them incorrect choices for this question.
3. A male patient is being treated with testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
- B. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
- C. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.
- D. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for applying testosterone gel is to apply it to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This is important to prevent the transfer of the medication to others. Applying it to the face and neck (Choice A) is incorrect as these areas are not recommended. Similarly, applying it to the scalp and back (Choice C) or the genitals (Choice D) is also incorrect and can lead to inappropriate absorption or undesirable effects.
4. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?
- A. “Maybe it’s just caused by aging. This usually happens by age 82.”
- B. “The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn’t sure what was happening.”
- C. “Dad just didn’t seem to know what he was doing. He would forget what he had for breakfast.”
- D. “Dad has always been so independent. He’s lived alone for years since mom died.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.
5. Manifestations of Cushing syndrome include:
- A. truncal obesity with thin extremities.
- B. enlargement of face, hands, and feet.
- C. cachexia.
- D. thick scalp hair.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct manifestation of Cushing syndrome is truncal obesity with thin extremities. This occurs due to the redistribution of fat to the face, neck, and abdomen, while the arms and legs remain thin. Choice B, enlargement of face, hands, and feet, is more indicative of acromegaly. Choice C, cachexia, refers to extreme weight loss and muscle wasting, which is typically not seen in Cushing syndrome. Choice D, thick scalp hair, is not a typical manifestation of Cushing syndrome.
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