Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values?

• A. PH 7.25, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, PaO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
• B. PH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 80 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
• C. PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
• D. PH 7.15, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. These values represent a balanced state for arterial blood gas. Choice A has lower than normal PH and HCO3 levels and higher PaCO2 and lower PaO2 levels. Choice B has higher than normal PH and HCO3 levels, lower PaCO2, and a normal PaO2 level. Choice D has a significantly lower PH and PaO2 level, normal HCO3 level, and low PaCO2 level, indicating an acidic state with impaired oxygenation.

2. Which of the following tests is recommended for lung cancer screening?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Pulmonary function test
• C. Computed tomography (CT) scan
• D. Magnetic resonance imaging

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Computed tomography (CT) scan. When screening for lung cancer, CT scans are recommended over chest X-rays due to their higher sensitivity in detecting lung nodules and early-stage cancers. Pulmonary function tests are not used for screening lung cancer but rather to assess lung function. Magnetic resonance imaging is not the preferred imaging modality for routine lung cancer screening, as CT scans are more commonly used.

3. When treating a patient for a fungal infection with IV amphotericin B, what should the nurse consistently monitor the patient's levels of to prevent drug discomfort?

• A. sodium
• B. hemoglobin
• C. calcium
• D. leukocytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is being treated with IV amphotericin B for a fungal infection, it is crucial to monitor the patient's calcium levels consistently. IV amphotericin B can cause hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and most notably, hypocalcemia. Monitoring calcium levels helps prevent drug-related discomfort and adverse effects. Sodium (Choice A), hemoglobin (Choice B), and leukocytes (Choice D) are not the primary parameters to monitor specifically for drug discomfort related to amphotericin B. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.

4. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes
• B. Mumps
• C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
• D. Testicular trauma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

5. A 34-year-old woman has presented to the clinic for the first time, and the nurse learns that she has been taking Depo Provera for the past 13 years. This aspect of the woman's medical history should prompt what assessment?

• A. Cardiac stress testing
• B. Renal ultrasound
• C. Bone density testing
• D. Evaluation of triglyceride levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is bone density testing (Choice C). Long-term use of Depo Provera, a hormonal contraceptive, is associated with decreased bone mineral density. Assessing bone density is crucial to monitor for potential osteoporosis. Cardiac stress testing (Choice A) is not indicated based on the medication history provided. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and evaluation of triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not directly related to the use of Depo Provera.

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