Nursing Elites

1. The RR nurse should monitor for the most common postoperative complication of:

• A. hemorrhage
• B. endotracheal tube perforation
• C. osopharyngeal edema
• D. epiglottis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

2. In alcoholic patient, the nurse knows that the vitamin deficient to these types of clients that leads to psychoses is:

• A. Thiamine C. Niacin
• B. Vitamin C D. Vitamin A
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

3. What describes a criterion used to diagnose diabetes?

• A. a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours
• B. a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms
• C. a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load is 400 mg/dL or higher
• D. a HbA1C higher than 5 percent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms is a diagnostic criterion for diabetes. This choice aligns with the typical clinical presentation of diabetes and is a key diagnostic indicator. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately reflect the established criteria for diagnosing diabetes, making them incorrect. Choice A pertains to a fasting plasma glucose level, Choice C involves a glucose challenge test, and Choice D refers to HbA1C levels, which are used for monitoring blood sugar control over time, not for diagnosing diabetes.

4. Which enzyme initiates protein digestion in the stomach?

• A. Pepsin
• B. Salivary Amylase
• C. CCK
• D. Secretin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pepsin is the enzyme that initiates protein digestion in the stomach. It breaks down proteins into smaller peptides, aiding in their further digestion and absorption in the intestines. Salivary Amylase (Choice B) functions in breaking down dietary carbohydrates in the mouth, not proteins. CCK (Choice C) and Secretin (Choice D) are hormones involved in the digestion of fats and carbohydrates, not proteins. Therefore, Choices B, C, and D are incorrect in the context of protein digestion in the stomach.

5. What does oliguria lead to in patients with acute kidney injury?

• A. Hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue
• B. An increase in blood potassium levels due to excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone
• C. Sodium retention and elevated levels of potassium
• D. Edema due to increased urine production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients with acute kidney injury, oliguria (reduced urine output) often results in sodium retention and hyperkalemia (elevated levels of potassium). This is due to the kidneys' decreased capacity to excrete these substances. Choice A is incorrect because hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue are not direct consequences of oliguria in acute kidney injury. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in blood potassium levels is not caused by excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone but rather by decreased excretion of potassium. Choice D is incorrect because edema is not caused by increased urine production but rather by fluid overload due to decreased urine output.

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