Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?

• A. 5 gtt/minute
• B. 13 gtt/minute
• C. 25 gtt/minute
• D. 50 gtt/minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute, multiply the ordered volume per hour by the drop factor (100 ml/hour x 15 gtt/ml = 1500 gtt/hour). Then, divide the result by 60 minutes to convert it to drops per minute (1500 gtt/hour ÷ 60 minutes = 25 gtt/minute). Therefore, the correct answer is 25 gtt/minute.

2. What is the meaning of PRN?

• A. When advice
• B. Immediately
• C. When necessary
• D. Now

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct meaning of PRN is 'when necessary.' The abbreviation 'PRN' comes from the Latin term 'pro re nata,' which is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken as needed, not at scheduled intervals. Choice A ('When advice') is incorrect as PRN does not refer to seeking advice. Choice B ('Immediately') is incorrect as PRN does not imply urgency. Choice D ('Now') is incorrect as PRN does not mean 'immediate' but rather 'as needed.' Therefore, the correct answer is C, 'When necessary.'

3. A healthcare professional is completing an incident report after a client fall. Which of the following competencies of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses is the professional demonstrating?

• A. Quality improvement
• B. Patient-centered care
• C. Evidence-based practice
• D. Informatics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Completing an incident report after a client fall aligns with the competency of quality improvement, which focuses on identifying system errors and implementing changes to improve patient outcomes and safety. Patient-centered care emphasizes involving patients in their care decisions, evidence-based practice involves integrating research and clinical expertise, and informatics involves using technology to improve patient care. In this scenario, the emphasis is on the process of improving quality and safety related to the incident.

4. Why is a precise amount of oxygen necessary for a patient with COPD to prevent which complication?

• A. Cardiac arrest related to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PaCO2)
• B. Circulatory overload due to hypervolemia
• C. Respiratory excitement
• D. Inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with COPD, the respiratory drive is often stimulated by low oxygen levels. Administering too much oxygen can inhibit this hypoxic drive, leading to respiratory depression and potential respiratory failure. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully regulate the oxygen therapy to prevent the inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus in COPD patients.

5. Mrs. Mitchell has been given a copy of her diet. The nurse discusses the foods allowed on a 500-mg low sodium diet. These include:

• A. A ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread
• B. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken
• C. A tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives
• D. Chicken bouillon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken. Both mashed potatoes and broiled chicken are typically low in sodium content, making them suitable choices for a 500-mg low sodium diet. The other options, such as a ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, a tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives, and chicken bouillon, may contain higher amounts of sodium and are not typically recommended for a low sodium diet.

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