Nursing Elites

1. For abdominal inspection, in which of the following positions should a patient be placed?

• A. Prone
• B. Trendelenburg
• C. Supine
• D. Side-lying

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The supine position is ideal for abdominal inspection as it allows the healthcare provider to easily access and examine the abdomen. In the supine position, the patient lies flat on their back with arms at their sides, providing a clear view and access to the abdominal area for inspection.

2. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

• A. Client who has dysphagia
• B. Client who has AIDS
• C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
• D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

3. What is the term for the body's ability to defend itself against specific invading agents such as bacteria, toxins, viruses, and foreign bodies?

• A. Hormones
• B. Secretion
• C. Immunity
• D. Glands

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Immunity. Immunity refers to the body's ability to protect itself against specific invading agents like bacteria, toxins, viruses, and foreign bodies by recognizing and destroying them. It is a crucial defense mechanism that helps maintain health and prevent infections and diseases. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormones are chemical messengers, secretion is the process of releasing substances, and glands are organs that produce and release substances, none of which specifically relate to the body's defense against invading agents.

4. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

• A. SaO2 95%
• B. Wheezing
• C. Retraction of sternal muscles
• D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

5. When educating a client who experienced a pneumothorax, which of the following statements should the nurse use?

• A. Notify the provider if you experience weakness.
• B. You should be able to return to work in 1 week.
• C. You need to wear a mask when in crowded areas.
• D. Notify your provider if you experience a productive cough.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After experiencing a pneumothorax, it is crucial for the client to be educated on potential complications. A productive cough can indicate infection or another issue, requiring prompt medical attention. Weakness, returning to work, and wearing a mask in crowded areas are important considerations but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory symptoms post-pneumothorax.

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