Nursing Elites

1. What is another name for the knee-chest position?

• A. Genu-dorsal
• B. Genu-pectoral
• C. Lithotomy
• D. Sim’s

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The knee-chest position is correctly identified as the genu-pectoral position. In this position, a person rests on their knees and chest with the abdomen raised and the head turned to one side. This position is commonly used in medical examinations and procedures involving the rectal or pelvic areas, allowing for better visualization and access. Choice A, 'Genu-dorsal,' is incorrect as it does not refer to the knee-chest position. Choice C, 'Lithotomy,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is lying on their back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, commonly used during childbirth or certain surgeries. Choice D, 'Sim’s,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient lies on their left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up with the left arm placed along the back.

2. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

• A. Client who has dysphagia
• B. Client who has AIDS
• C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
• D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

3. A client is being assessed by a nurse who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Cool, moist skin
• D. Incisional pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chest pain is a critical finding postoperatively, especially after an arterial thrombectomy, as it could indicate complications like myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. It requires immediate attention and further evaluation. Muscle spasms, cool moist skin, and incisional pain are important to assess but not as urgent as chest pain in this scenario.

4. Which deficiency is most commonly seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder?

• A. Thiamine
• B. Riboflavin
• C. Pyridoxine
• D. Pantothenic acid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thiamine deficiency, also known as Vitamin B1 deficiency, is the most common vitamin deficiency seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Chronic alcohol consumption can lead to decreased thiamine absorption and utilization, as well as poor dietary intake. Thiamine deficiency can result in serious neurological complications, such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, making it essential to address thiamine supplementation in individuals with alcohol use disorder.

5. Which of the following principles of primary nursing has proven the most satisfying to the patient and nurse?

• A. Administer oxygen by Venturi mask at 24% as needed
• B. Allow a 1-hour rest period between activities
• C. Patients and nurses both respond well to primary nursing care units
• D. Studies have shown that patients and nurses both respond well to primary nursing care units

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Primary nursing care units have been proven to be highly satisfying for both patients and nurses. This model promotes a consistent and continuous relationship between a patient and a primary nurse, leading to improved communication, personalized care, and overall satisfaction for both parties involved.

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