ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A nurse manager is reviewing documentation with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following notations by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''OOB with assistance for breakfast''
- B. ''Given 2 mg MSO4 IM for report of pain''
- C. ''Dressing changed qd''
- D. ''Administered 8 units of regular insulin subcutaneously''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer demonstrates proper documentation by specifying the action taken ('Administered'), the dose ('8 units'), the medication ('regular insulin'), and the route of administration ('subcutaneously'). This notation ensures clarity and accuracy in recording the nursing intervention, aligning with best practices in documentation.
2. A client has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area.
- B. Wipe stool from the skin using store-bought baby wipes.
- C. Apply talcum powder to the irritated area.
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diaper dermatitis, also known as diaper rash, is a common condition in babies or clients who wear diapers. The primary intervention for diaper dermatitis is to apply a protective barrier cream, such as zinc oxide ointment, to the irritated area. This helps to protect the skin from irritants and promotes healing. Wiping stool from the skin using baby wipes may further irritate the skin, and talcum powder is no longer recommended due to potential respiratory risks when inhaled. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area.
3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
4. The client was asked to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is being tested?
- A. Optic
- B. Olfactory
- C. Oculomotor
- D. Trochlear
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Optic. The Snellen chart is used to test visual acuity, which assesses the function of the optic nerve responsible for vision. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Olfactory relates to the sense of smell, oculomotor controls eye movement, and trochlear controls certain eye muscles. Therefore, the only option related to vision testing in this context is the optic nerve.
5. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?
- A. Less than 30 ml/hour
- B. 64 ml in 2 hours
- C. 90 ml in 3 hours
- D. 125 ml in 4 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access