ATI RN
ATI Nursing Care of Children 2019 B
1. When should the nurse instruct parents to administer a daily proton pump inhibitor to their child with gastroesophageal reflux?
- A. At bedtime
- B. With a meal
- C. Midmorning
- D. 30 minutes before breakfast
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) like omeprazole or lansoprazole are most effective when given 30 minutes before breakfast. This timing allows the medication to inhibit the proton pumps in the stomach that produce acid, providing better symptom control throughout the day. Administering the PPI at bedtime (choice A) may not be as effective as giving it before breakfast due to the timing of peak acid production during the day. Giving it with a meal (choice B) might affect the absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Midmorning administration (choice C) is not the recommended time for optimal PPI efficacy.
2. Which sign is indicative of developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?
- A. Ortolani sign
- B. Romberg sign
- C. Trendelenburg sign
- D. Gower's sign
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Ortolani sign is a specific maneuver used during physical examination to detect hip instability or dislocation in infants. A positive Ortolani sign, where the hip is felt to slip back into the socket, is indicative of developmental dysplasia of the hip, a condition that can lead to long-term disability if not treated early. Romberg sign is used to assess sensory ataxia, Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the hip abductor muscles, and Gower's sign is seen in children with proximal muscle weakness climbing up their own body from a supine position due to conditions like muscular dystrophy.
3. In assessing sexual maturity levels, which tool would you expect to use?
- A. Denver II Developmental Screening
- B. Tanner staging
- C. Antibody testing
- D. Nursing process
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tanner staging. Tanner staging is a tool specifically used to assess sexual maturity in adolescents based on the development of secondary sexual characteristics. The Tanner scale ranges from stage 1 (prepubertal) to stage 5 (adult maturity). This tool helps healthcare providers evaluate the physical development and sexual maturation of individuals. Choice A, the Denver II Developmental Screening, is used to assess developmental milestones in children. Choice C, antibody testing, is a diagnostic tool used to detect the presence of specific antibodies in the blood. Choice D, the nursing process, is a systematic method that nurses use to deliver patient-centered care, involving assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.
4. The nurse is taking a sexual history on an adolescent girl. Which is the best way to determine whether she is sexually active?
- A. Ask her, "Are you sexually active?"
- B. Ask her, "Are you having sex with anyone?"
- C. Ask her, "Are you having sex with a boyfriend?"
- D. Ask both the girl and her parent if she is sexually active
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Directly asking the adolescent if she is sexually active is the most straightforward and respectful approach, ensuring privacy and fostering trust.
5. When transitioning from intravenous to oral morphine, what would the nurse anticipate regarding the oral dose in comparison to the intravenous dose to achieve equianalgesia?
- A. Same as the intravenous dose
- B. Greater than the intravenous dose
- C. One half of the intravenous dose
- D. One fourth of the intravenous dose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When switching from intravenous to oral morphine, a higher oral dose is required to achieve equianalgesia due to significant metabolism from the first-pass effect. Choosing the same oral dose as the intravenous dose would provide less pain relief. Opting for a dose greater than the intravenous dose is necessary to achieve the same analgesic effect. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect.
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