Nursing Elites

1. When should the nurse instruct parents to administer a daily proton pump inhibitor to their child with gastroesophageal reflux?

• A. At bedtime
• B. With a meal
• C. Midmorning
• D. 30 minutes before breakfast

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) like omeprazole or lansoprazole are most effective when given 30 minutes before breakfast. This timing allows the medication to inhibit the proton pumps in the stomach that produce acid, providing better symptom control throughout the day. Administering the PPI at bedtime (choice A) may not be as effective as giving it before breakfast due to the timing of peak acid production during the day. Giving it with a meal (choice B) might affect the absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Midmorning administration (choice C) is not the recommended time for optimal PPI efficacy.

2. The nurse is teaching a parent of a 6-month-old infant with gastroesophageal reflux (GER) before discharge. What instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed in the crib to a 90-degree angle while the infant is sleeping.
• B. Hold the infant in the prone position after a feeding.
• C. Discontinue breastfeeding so that a formula and rice cereal mixture can be used.
• D. Prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) should be given 30 minutes before feedings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cimetidine is an H2 blocker that reduces stomach acid, helping manage GER. Holding the infant in the prone position is not recommended due to the risk of SIDS. Breastfeeding should not be discontinued unless advised by a physician. Elevating the head to 90 degrees is excessive.

3. What urine test result is considered abnormal?

• A. pH 4.0
• B. WBC 1 or 2 cells/ml
• C. Protein level absent
• D. Specific gravity 1.020

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pH of 4.0 is abnormally low, indicating possible acidosis or other metabolic conditions. WBC count of 1-2 cells/ml, absence of protein, and a specific gravity of 1.020 are within normal limits.

4. The nurse is caring for a child with sickle cell anemia with the following order: Morphine Sulfate 2 mg IV every 24 hours. Morphine Sulfate is available in 10 mg/1mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.5 mL
• C. 1 mL
• D. 2 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer 2 mg of Morphine Sulfate when the concentration is 10 mg/mL, the nurse should administer 0.2 mL (2 mg / 10 mg/mL = 0.2 mL). Choice B, 0.5 mL, is incorrect because it is the result of dividing 2 mg by 4 mg/mL instead of 10 mg/mL. Choice C, 1 mL, is incorrect as it would be the result of dividing 2 mg by 2 mg/mL. Choice D, 2 mL, is incorrect as it would be the result of dividing 2 mg by 1 mg/mL.

5. The nurse is discussing sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with a 17-year-old student. Which cognitive development theory should the teaching plan be based on?

• A. Sensorimotor reactions
• B. Limited cause and effect understanding
• C. Abstract thinking
• D. Concrete thinking

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Abstract thinking.' According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, adolescents, typically around the age of 12 and older, enter the formal operational stage where they can think abstractly and reason about hypothetical situations. When discussing complex topics like STIs with a 17-year-old student, it is essential to base the teaching plan on abstract thinking. Choice A, 'Sensorimotor reactions,' is incorrect as it pertains to the earliest stage in Piaget's theory (birth to 2 years old) focusing on sensory experiences and physical interactions. Choice B, 'Limited cause and effect understanding,' does not align with the cognitive abilities of a 17-year-old who is capable of more advanced thinking. Choice D, 'Concrete thinking,' is also incorrect as it refers to the stage before formal operations, where individuals think more concretely and struggle with abstract concepts.

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