ATI RN
ATI Oncology Quiz
1. The nurse is reviewing the medication record for a client receiving chemotherapy and notes that the client is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). The nurse determines that this medication has been prescribed to:
- A. Increase white blood cell production
- B. Treat anemia
- C. Reduce pain
- D. Prevent infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a synthetic form of erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. Chemotherapy often leads to anemia due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells, including those in the bone marrow responsible for red blood cell production. By administering epoetin alfa, the healthcare provider aims to increase the red blood cell count and improve hemoglobin levels, thereby alleviating symptoms associated with anemia, such as fatigue and weakness.
2. What should a healthcare professional monitor for in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized redness and swelling
- C. Fever and signs of infection
- D. Loss of deep tendon reflexes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome. In this condition, increased pressure within a muscle compartment impairs blood flow, leading to severe pain that is not relieved by usual measures, pallor from decreased blood flow, and pulselessness due to compromised circulation. These signs indicate a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Localized redness and swelling (Choice B) are more characteristic of inflammation or infection rather than compartment syndrome. Fever and signs of infection (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Loss of deep tendon reflexes (Choice D) is associated with conditions affecting the nervous system, not compartment syndrome.
3. A client has been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the stomach and is scheduled to undergo a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). During pre-operative teaching, the nurse is reinforcing information about the procedure. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?
- A. The procedure will result in enlargement of the pyloric sphincter
- B. The procedure will result in anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum
- C. The procedure will result in removal of the duodenum
- D. The procedure will result in repositioning of the vagus nerve
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Billroth II procedure involves anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum.
4. What is the most common method of reducing and immobilizing a fracture?
- A. Open reduction with external fixation
- B. External reduction and internal fixation
- C. External fixation with closed reduction
- D. Open reduction with internal fixation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF) is the most common method for reducing and immobilizing fractures.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
- A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
- B. Position the client on the left side during feedings.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
- D. Check gastric residual every 2 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.
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