Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Mike is providing care to a client with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The nurse knows that the client is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Which of the following laboratory values requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased uric acid level
• B. Increased serum potassium level
• C. Increased serum sodium level
• D. Increased fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased uric acid level. In tumor lysis syndrome, rapid cell destruction releases large amounts of potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids into the bloodstream. Uric acid can accumulate rapidly, leading to hyperuricemia, which can result in kidney damage due to urate crystal deposition. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent renal complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while electrolyte imbalances are common in tumor lysis syndrome, hyperuricemia with potential kidney damage is the priority concern that requires immediate attention.

2. The nurse is developing a plan of care for the client with multiple myeloma and includes which priority intervention in the plan?

• A. Encouraging fluids
• B. Providing frequent oral care
• C. Coughing and deep breathing
• D. Monitoring the red blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encouraging fluids. In a client with multiple myeloma, encouraging fluids is a priority intervention to prevent kidney damage from high calcium levels. Adequate hydration helps maintain renal function and prevents complications. Providing frequent oral care (Choice B) is essential for clients at risk of mucositis or oral infections, such as those undergoing chemotherapy. Coughing and deep breathing exercises (Choice C) are commonly used for clients at risk of respiratory complications, like postoperative patients. Monitoring the red blood cell count (Choice D) is important for conditions like anemia but is not the priority in a client with multiple myeloma, where fluid management is crucial.

3. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. It causes rapid lysis of the cancer cell membranes.
• B. It destroys the enzymes needed to create cancer cells.
• C. It prevents the start of cell division in the cancer cells.
• D. It sensitizes certain cancer cells to chemotherapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.

4. A patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving information from the oncology nurse. The patient asks the nurse why she should stop drinking and smoking and stay out of the sun. What would be the nurse's best response?

• A. Everyone should do these things because they are health promotion activities that apply to everyone.
• B. You don't want to develop a second cancer, do you?
• C. You need to do this just to be on the safe side.
• D. It's important to reduce other factors that increase the risk of second cancers.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should encourage patients to reduce other factors that increase the risk of developing second cancers, such as the use of tobacco and alcohol and exposure to environmental carcinogens and excessive sunlight. Choice A is too general and does not address the specific concerns of a cancer patient. Choice B uses fear tactics, which may not be the most effective approach. Choice C is vague and does not provide a clear rationale for the behavior change, unlike Choice D which specifically links the behaviors to reducing the risk of second cancers.

5. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?

• A. Gastroduodenostomy
• B. Gastrojejunostomy
• C. Gastroileostomy
• D. Gastrostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.

Similar Questions