ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. A client in the emergency department reports difficulty breathing. The nurse assesses the client’s appearance as depicted below: What action by the nurse is most important?
- A. Assess blood pressure and pulse.
- B. Attach the client to a pulse oximeter.
- C. Have the client rate his or her pain.
- D. Facilitate urgent radiation therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to assess the client's blood pressure and pulse. Difficulty breathing can be a sign of various conditions, including cardiac issues. Assessing blood pressure and pulse helps in determining the client's hemodynamic status and identifying any cardiovascular compromise. Option B is less crucial as attaching the client to a pulse oximeter may provide oxygen saturation levels but does not directly assess cardiac output. Option C is not the priority in this situation as the client's difficulty breathing is a more urgent concern. Option D is incorrect as urgent radiation therapy is not indicated based on the client's presentation.
2. A client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which condition?
- A. Rupture of the bladder
- B. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
- C. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
- D. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to the passage of urine through the vagina. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including radiation therapy. Choice A, rupture of the bladder, is incorrect because a rupture would present with more severe symptoms and is not consistent with the client's description. Choice C, extreme stress, is incorrect as it does not explain the physical symptom of voiding through the vagina. Choice D, altered perineal sensation, is incorrect as it does not involve a direct connection between the bladder and the vagina.
3. A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what?
- A. AML
- B. CML
- C. MDS
- D. ALL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) is a type of cancer where immature lymphocytes (a type of white blood cell) proliferate uncontrollably in the bone marrow. This leads to a reduction in the production of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, causing symptoms such as fatigue, anemia, bleeding tendencies, and increased susceptibility to infection. In ALL, leukemic cell infiltration into other organs is common, which can manifest as severe headaches (due to central nervous system involvement), vomiting, and testicular pain (due to infiltration of leukemic cells into the testes). These are hallmark signs of ALL, especially in younger patients.
4. The nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors associated with colorectal cancer. The nurse determines that further teaching is necessary related to colorectal cancer if the client identifies which item as an associated risk factor?
- A. Age younger than 50 years
- B. History of colorectal polyps
- C. Family history of colorectal cancer
- D. Chronic inflammatory bowel disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age younger than 50 years. Colorectal cancer is more commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 50, so being younger than 50 is not typically considered a significant risk factor. Choice B, history of colorectal polyps, is a known risk factor as polyps can develop into cancer over time. Choice C, family history of colorectal cancer, is a well-established risk factor due to genetic predisposition. Choice D, chronic inflammatory bowel disease, such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis, increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Therefore, the incorrect choice is A as age younger than 50 years is not a common risk factor for colorectal cancer.
5. A client with long-standing heart failure being treated for cancer has received a dose of ondansetron for nausea. What action by the nurse is most important?
- A. Assess the client for a headache or dizziness.
- B. Request a prescription for cardiac monitoring.
- C. Instruct the client to change positions slowly.
- D. Weigh the client daily before eating.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron can prolong the QT interval, making cardiac monitoring essential in this scenario.
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