ATI RN
ATI Oncology Quiz
1. A nurse is preparing health education for a patient who has received a diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). Which of the following topics should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Techniques for energy conservation and activity management
- B. Emergency management of bleeding episodes
- C. Technique for the administration of bronchodilators by metered-dose inhaler
- D. Techniques for self-palpation of the lymph nodes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Because of patients risks of hemorrhage, patients with MDS should be taught techniques for managing emergent bleeding episodes.
2. In an adult patient, which assessment finding is considered diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?
- A. Schwann cells
- B. Reed-Sternberg cells
- C. Lewy bodies
- D. Loops of Henle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reed-Sternberg cells. In Hodgkin lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is diagnostic. These cells are large, atypical cells originating from B-lymphocytes. They are distinctive in appearance and are key to diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Schwann cells are related to nerve function, Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson's disease, and Loops of Henle are structures in the kidney, none of which are specific to Hodgkin lymphoma.
3. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who is receiving the drug imatinib (Gleevec). What should the nurse monitor in this patient to assess for side effects of this therapy?
- A. Cardiac function
- B. Renal function
- C. Liver function
- D. Pulmonary function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac function. Imatinib can cause fluid retention and heart failure, so cardiac function should be closely monitored. Renal function (choice B) is not typically affected by imatinib. Liver function (choice C) is not the primary concern with this medication. Pulmonary function (choice D) is not directly impacted by imatinib therapy.
4. A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia?
- A. Interrupted sleep pattern
- B. Hot flashes
- C. Epistaxis (nose bleed)
- D. Increased weight
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding and hemorrhage. Patients receiving chemotherapy agents like carmustine may experience thrombocytopenia as a significant side effect. Epistaxis (nosebleeds) is a common symptom associated with thrombocytopenia, as the blood vessels can become more fragile, and even minor trauma or spontaneous bleeding can occur. Therefore, assessing for signs of bleeding, including epistaxis, is crucial in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia.
5. The nurse is monitoring a client for signs and symptoms related to superior vena cava syndrome. Which is an early sign of this oncological emergency?
- A. Cyanosis
- B. Arm edema
- C. Periorbital edema
- D. Mental status changes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when the superior vena cava, the large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, becomes compressed or obstructed, often by a tumor or enlarged lymph nodes, typically in cancers like lung cancer or lymphoma. The obstruction leads to increased venous pressure and reduced blood flow, resulting in swelling and edema in areas drained by the superior vena cava. Periorbital edema (swelling around the eyes) is one of the earliest signs of SVCS. This occurs because the impaired venous return causes fluid to accumulate in the soft tissues of the face, especially around the eyes. As the condition progresses, facial swelling can worsen, and other symptoms develop.
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