Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Heparin
• C. Warfarin
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.

2. The complete blood count (CBC) indicates that a patient is thrombocytopenic. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Avoid intramuscular injections.
• B. Encourage increased oral fluids.
• C. Check temperature every 4 hours.
• D. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to include in the plan of care for a thrombocytopenic patient is to avoid intramuscular injections. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a decreased number of platelets, which are essential for blood clotting. Intramuscular injections can pose a risk of bleeding in patients with low platelet counts. Encouraging increased oral fluids (choice B) is beneficial for hydration but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with thrombocytopenia. Checking temperature every 4 hours (choice C) is important for monitoring infection but does not specifically address the risk of bleeding. Increasing intake of iron-rich foods (choice D) is more related to addressing anemia, not the primary concern of bleeding in thrombocytopenia.

3. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

• A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
• B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

4. A patient is considering options to manage his/her coronary artery disease. The nurse explains a coronary artery bypass graft procedure will:

• A. Cure the patient's coronary artery disease.
• B. Replace the leaking valve in the heart.
• C. Connect grafts to aorta to improve blood flow.
• D. Place a permanent pacemaker on the heart muscle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A coronary artery bypass graft procedure involves connecting grafts to the aorta to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked or narrowed coronary arteries. This procedure does not cure coronary artery disease but helps improve blood supply to the heart. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a bypass graft procedure does not cure the underlying disease, replace heart valves, or involve the placement of a pacemaker.

5. A 62-year-old man with chronic anemia is experiencing increased fatigue and occasional palpitations at rest. The nurse would expect the patient's laboratory test findings to include

• A. an RBC count of 4,500,000/μL.
• B. a hematocrit (Hct) value of 38%.
• C. normal red blood cell (RBC) indices.
• D. a hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.6 g/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In chronic anemia, the hematocrit (Hct) value is a crucial indicator of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. A hematocrit value of 38% indicates a lower than normal level of red blood cells, which aligns with the patient's symptoms of fatigue and palpitations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a low RBC count, normal RBC indices, and a hemoglobin level of 8.6 g/dL do not specifically address the decreased red blood cell mass associated with chronic anemia.

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