Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Heparin
• C. Warfarin
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.

2. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

• A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
• B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

3. The nurse assesses a patient with pernicious anemia. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect?

• A. Yellow-tinged sclerae
• B. Shiny, smooth tongue
• C. Numbness of the extremities
• D. Gum bleeding and tenderness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Numbness of the extremities. Numbness of the extremities is a common finding in patients with pernicious anemia, which is caused by cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency. This deficiency affects the peripheral nervous system, leading to neurological symptoms like numbness and tingling in the extremities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Yellow-tinged sclerae is more indicative of jaundice or liver dysfunction, a shiny smooth tongue is seen in conditions like glossitis, and gum bleeding and tenderness are associated with periodontal disease or vitamin C deficiency, not pernicious anemia.

4. Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Reticulocyte count
• C. Total lymphocyte count
• D. Absolute neutrophil count

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Absolute neutrophil count. Filgrastim (Neupogen) works by stimulating the production and function of neutrophils. Therefore, monitoring the Absolute neutrophil count is crucial to assess the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophil levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because platelet count, reticulocyte count, and total lymphocyte count do not directly reflect the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophils, which are essential in fighting infections during chemotherapy.

5. Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse?

• A. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain
• B. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8°F
• C. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing gums after a tooth extraction
• D. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a neutropenic patient with a fever is at high risk for developing sepsis. Sepsis can progress rapidly and lead to life-threatening complications. Immediate assessment, obtaining cultures, and initiating antibiotic therapy are essential in this situation. Choices A, C, and D do not present with the same level of urgency as a neutropenic patient with a fever. Abdominal pain in a hemochromatosis patient, oozing gums after a tooth extraction in a thrombocytopenic patient, and nausea and diarrhea in a patient with sickle cell anemia, while concerning, do not indicate the same immediate risk of sepsis as a neutropenic patient with a fever.

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