ATI RN
ATI Perfusion Quizlet
1. The nurse reviews the laboratory test results of a patient admitted with abdominal pain. Which information will be most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?
- A. Monocytes 4%
- B. Hemoglobin 13.6 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 168,000/μL
- D. White blood cell (WBC) count 15,500/μL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A low percentage of monocytes can indicate a viral infection. This is crucial information to communicate as it suggests a specific type of infection that may require targeted treatment. Choices B, C, and D do not directly relate to an infectious process and are within normal ranges, so they are not as urgent to communicate to the healthcare provider in this context.
2. Which patient should the nurse assign as the roommate for a patient who has aplastic anemia?
- A. A patient with chronic heart failure
- B. A patient who has viral pneumonia
- C. A patient who has right leg cellulitis
- D. A patient with multiple abdominal drains
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because patients with aplastic anemia are at risk for infection due to low white blood cell production. Assigning a roommate with viral pneumonia (choice B), cellulitis (choice C), or multiple abdominal drains (choice D) could expose the patient with aplastic anemia to potential infectious agents, which could further compromise their health.
3. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
- A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
- B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
- C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
- D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.
4. Which instruction will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for a patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis?
- A. Take a daily multivitamin with iron
- B. Limit fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day
- C. Avoid exposure to crowds when possible
- D. Drink only two caffeinated beverages daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid exposure to crowds when possible.' This instruction is crucial in discharge teaching for a patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis because exposure to crowds increases the risk of infection, which is the most common cause of sickle cell crisis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking a daily multivitamin with iron (Choice A) may be beneficial for some individuals but is not specifically related to managing sickle cell crisis. Limiting fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day (Choice B) is not typically recommended for patients with sickle cell crisis, as adequate hydration is important. Drinking only two caffeinated beverages daily (Choice D) is not a priority instruction in managing sickle cell crisis.
5. A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states:
- A. I need to start eating more red meat and liver.
- B. I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner.
- C. I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12.
- D. I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body can't absorb enough vitamin B12. Treatment usually involves lifelong replacement of vitamin B12. In this case, the patient understanding the disorder is correctly demonstrated by choosing nasal spray or injections of vitamin B12 for replacement therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing red meat/liver intake, stopping wine consumption, or taking a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole do not address the primary issue of vitamin B12 absorption in pernicious anemia.
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