Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.

2. The nurse knows that all of the following are risk factors for breast cancer except:

• A. Family history
• B. Nulliparity
• C. Chest xray
• D. Multiple sex partners

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Multiple sex partners are not a recognized risk factor for breast cancer. Breast cancer is primarily influenced by hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors, not sexual activity or the number of sexual partners. Established risk factors for breast cancer include family history, hormonal factors such as early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity (having no children), as well as certain environmental exposures.

3. A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?

• A. Disease prophylaxis
• B. Risk reduction
• C. Secondary prevention
• D. Tertiary prevention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Secondary prevention involves screening and early detection activities that seek to identify early-stage cancer in individuals who lack symptoms.

4. Which of the following is not a manifestation of breast cancer?

• A. Peau d'orange
• B. Painless breast mass
• C. Alopecia
• D. Breast enlargement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alopecia (hair loss) is not a direct manifestation of breast cancer but rather a common side effect of chemotherapy used in breast cancer treatment. Peau d'orange refers to the dimpling or pitting of the skin resembling an orange peel, which can be a sign of breast cancer due to blockage of lymphatic vessels. A painless breast mass and breast enlargement can both be manifestations of breast cancer, with a painless mass being a common symptom and breast enlargement sometimes occurring due to tumor growth.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Which laboratory value requires the nurse to intervene?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Increased serum calcium
• C. Increased creatinine level
• D. Increased blood glucose level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when large numbers of cancer cells die rapidly, releasing their contents into the bloodstream. This can overwhelm the kidneys and lead to acute kidney injury. Creatinine is a waste product filtered out of the blood by the kidneys, and an elevated creatinine level is a sign of kidney dysfunction or damage. In TLS, increased creatinine levels indicate that the kidneys are struggling to filter out the excess waste products from cell breakdown, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications, such as acute renal failure.

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