Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.

2. The client is assessing a client who has a new ureterostomy. Which statement by the client indicates the need for more education about urinary stoma care?

• A. I change my pouch every week.
• B. I change the appliance in the morning.
• C. I empty the urinary collection bag when it is two-thirds full.
• D. When I'm in the shower, I direct the flow of water away from my stoma.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because directing water away from the stoma while showering is incorrect. The stoma can and should be cleaned with water. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate proper stoma care practices, such as changing the pouch regularly, changing the appliance in the morning, and emptying the collection bag when it is two-thirds full, which are all appropriate actions for caring for a urinary stoma.

3. A patient with myelofibrosis is being treated with ruxolitinib. What should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this treatment?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• D. Spleen size

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit is essential to assess the effectiveness of ruxolitinib in treating myelofibrosis. Ruxolitinib works by inhibiting JAK1 and JAK2, which are involved in the signaling pathways that regulate blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels can provide valuable information on how well the drug is managing the disease. Blood pressure, white blood cell count, and spleen size are not direct indicators of the treatment's effectiveness in myelofibrosis.

4. A nurse knows that the patient with stage 3 based on Ann-arber staging has:

• A. 2 or more lymph node involvement and outside the lymph nodes
• B. 2 or more lymph node involvement on one side of the body
• C. 2 or more lymph nodes on the breasts
• D. 2 or more lymph node involvement on both sides of the body

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the Ann Arbor staging system for lymphomas, Stage 3 indicates that the disease has spread beyond the initial lymph node region to involve lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm (i.e., the areas above and below the diaphragm). This includes lymphatic involvement in both the thoracic and abdominal regions, signifying a more advanced disease state.

5. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

Similar Questions