Nursing Elites

1. When preparing for the patient's subsequent care after completing the full course of treatment for acute lymphocytic leukemia without a significant response, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Arrange a meeting between the patient's family and the hospital chaplain.
• B. Assess the factors underlying the patient's failure to adhere to the treatment regimen.
• C. Encourage the patient to vigorously pursue complementary and alternative medicine (CAM).
• D. Identify the patient's specific wishes around end-of-life care.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases where a patient does not respond appreciably to therapy, it is crucial to identify and respect the patient's choices regarding treatment, including preferences for end-of-life care. Option A is incorrect because it focuses on spiritual support rather than the patient's care preferences. Option B is incorrect as it assumes non-adherence to treatment without evidence. Option C is incorrect as it suggests an alternative treatment approach without considering the patient's wishes for end-of-life care.

2. Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which preprocedure instruction to the client?

• A. Eat a light breakfast only
• B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
• C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
• D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pelvic ultrasound requires the client to have a full bladder because the bladder acts as a window through which pelvic organs, such as the uterus and ovaries, can be visualized more clearly. The full bladder pushes the intestines out of the way and provides a better acoustic pathway for the ultrasound waves. Without this, the pelvic organs might be obscured, and the images would be less accurate.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim to a client undergoing chemotherapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase white blood cell production.
• B. Reduce the risk of infection.
• C. Enhance red blood cell production.
• D. Control chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim is primarily used to increase white blood cell production in clients undergoing chemotherapy.

4. All of the following are warning signs of cancer except:

• A. Patient palpates a bump on the side of the breast
• B. Bruises are found on the body that the client cannot explain
• C. Patient often complains of impaired digestion
• D. Patient has blood-tinged sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Blood-tinged sputum is not a typical warning sign of cancer but rather a symptom that can indicate other serious conditions like respiratory issues or infections. Choices A, B, and C are common warning signs of cancer: palpable lumps or bumps, unexplained bruises, and persistent digestive issues are often associated with cancer and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional for further assessment and diagnosis.

5. A nurse is caring for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who is at risk for anemia. What is the most appropriate intervention to address this risk?

• A. Administering iron supplements
• B. Administering blood transfusions
• C. Providing a high-iron diet
• D. Administering erythropoietin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), the bone marrow does not produce enough healthy blood cells, leading to conditions such as anemia. Administering erythropoietin is an effective intervention to manage anemia in MDS patients because it stimulates the production of red blood cells. This can help improve the patient’s hemoglobin levels, reducing symptoms such as fatigue and weakness associated with anemia. Erythropoietin is commonly used in MDS to enhance red blood cell production and reduce the need for frequent blood transfusions.

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