Nursing Elites

1. A patient with advanced leukemia is responding poorly to treatment. The nurse finds the patient tearful and trying to express his feelings, but he is clearly having difficulty. What is the nurses most appropriate action?

• A. Tell him that you will give him privacy and leave the room.
• B. Offer to call pastoral care.
• C. Ask if he would like you to sit with him while he collects his thoughts.
• D. Tell him that you can understand how hes feeling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing emotional support and discussing the uncertain future are crucial.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
• B. Offer small, frequent meals that are bland and easy to digest.
• C. Encourage the client to rest after meals to reduce nausea.
• D. Instruct the client to use relaxation techniques.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy. Administering antiemetics before chemotherapy is crucial to prevent nausea rather than treating it after it occurs. This proactive approach helps in minimizing the side effects. Choice B, offering small, frequent meals, can be beneficial but is not the first intervention for severe nausea and vomiting. Choice C, encouraging rest after meals, may help but is not the priority when the client is experiencing severe symptoms. Choice D, instructing the client to use relaxation techniques, is not the first-line intervention for severe nausea and vomiting in a client receiving chemotherapy.

3. The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse's assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?

• A. Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)
• B. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
• C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). Tumor lysis syndrome is a potential complication after treatment for certain cancers, including non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The rapid breakdown of cancer cells in response to treatment can lead to metabolic abnormalities, such as hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia, which can be life-threatening. Choice B, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), is not typically associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Choice C, Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), is more commonly seen in conditions such as sepsis or trauma, not directly related to non-Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common complication following treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

4. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

5. Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:

• A. at the end of her menstrual cycle.
• B. on the same day each month.
• C. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle.
• D. immediately after her menstrual period.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For premenopausal women, the best time to perform a breast self-examination (BSE) is immediately after their menstrual period ends. This timing is ideal because hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle can cause breast tissue to become swollen and tender, making it more difficult to detect any lumps or changes. After the menstrual period, breast tissue is usually softer and less lumpy, allowing for a more accurate assessment of any abnormalities.

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