which of the following is not a manifestation of breast cancer
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Questions

1. Which of the following is not a manifestation of breast cancer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alopecia (hair loss) is not a direct manifestation of breast cancer but rather a common side effect of chemotherapy used in breast cancer treatment. Peau d'orange refers to the dimpling or pitting of the skin resembling an orange peel, which can be a sign of breast cancer due to blockage of lymphatic vessels. A painless breast mass and breast enlargement can both be manifestations of breast cancer, with a painless mass being a common symptom and breast enlargement sometimes occurring due to tumor growth.

2. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testicular cancer is indeed highly treatable and curable, particularly when detected early through regular self-examinations. The survival rates for testicular cancer are very high, with many cases being treatable even if the cancer has spread, thanks to effective treatment options such as surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Educating clients on the importance of early detection through monthly testicular self-examinations can empower them to recognize any changes early, increasing the likelihood of successful treatment.

3. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

4. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.

5. The home health care nurse is caring for a client with cancer who is complaining of acute pain. The most appropriate determination of the client's pain should include which assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client's pain rating. Pain assessment should primarily rely on the client's self-report for the most accurate determination of pain intensity. Nonverbal cues from the client (choice B) can provide additional information but should not replace the client's self-report. The nurse's impression of the client's pain (choice C) may be subjective and less reliable than the client's self-assessment. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention (choice D) is an important outcome but does not replace the initial assessment of the client's pain.

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