Nursing Elites

1. The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a patient with cancer who is preparing for HSCT. What is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?

• A. Fatigue related to altered metabolic processes
• B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to anorexia
• C. Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response
• D. Body image disturbance related to weight loss and anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients preparing for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) undergo intensive chemotherapy and/or radiation, which significantly suppresses their immune system. This immunosuppression leads to a heightened risk for infection, making it the most critical nursing diagnosis for these patients. As the body’s ability to fight off pathogens is compromised, close monitoring and interventions aimed at preventing infections are essential for their safety and recovery.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings would be of most concern?

• A. Alopecia
• B. Fatigue
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Mouth sores

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Mouth sores.' Mouth sores (stomatitis) are a common and potentially serious side effect of chemotherapy. They can lead to difficulty eating, increased risk of infection, and overall decreased quality of life for the client. While alopecia, fatigue, and nausea/vomiting are also common side effects of chemotherapy, they are generally manageable and do not pose the same level of immediate concern as the development of mouth sores in a client undergoing chemotherapy.

3. Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which preprocedure instruction to the client?

• A. Eat a light breakfast only
• B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
• C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
• D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pelvic ultrasound requires the client to have a full bladder because the bladder acts as a window through which pelvic organs, such as the uterus and ovaries, can be visualized more clearly. The full bladder pushes the intestines out of the way and provides a better acoustic pathway for the ultrasound waves. Without this, the pelvic organs might be obscured, and the images would be less accurate.

4. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?

• A. Gastroduodenostomy
• B. Gastrojejunostomy
• C. Gastroileostomy
• D. Gastrostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.

5. Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following?

• A. Daily treatment with targeted therapy medications
• B. Radiation therapy on a daily basis
• C. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
• D. An aggressive course of chemotherapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Attempts are made to achieve remission of AML by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy.

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