Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

• A. Carvedilol
• B. Fluticasone
• C. Captopril
• D. Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased anterior-posterior (AP) chest diameter
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight gain
• D. Productive cough with yellow sputum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), clients often develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest due to hyperinflation of the lungs. This change in chest shape is a common finding in COPD. Decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings associated with COPD.

3. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
• B. Difficulty swallowing
• C. Heart rate of 122/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.

4. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

• A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
• B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
• C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
• D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

5. When assessing a client with a pneumothorax and a chest tube, which finding should the nurse notify the provider about?

• A. Movement of the trachea toward the unaffected side
• B. Bubbling of the water in the water seal chamber with exhalation
• C. Crepitus in the area above and surrounding the insertion site
• D. Eyelets not visible

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The movement of the trachea toward the unaffected side is concerning as it can indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate intervention. The trachea should be midline, so any deviation should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and intervention.

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