Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

• A. Carvedilol
• B. Fluticasone
• C. Captopril
• D. Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding does the nurse expect?

• A. Increased anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight gain
• D. Productive cough with yellow sputum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with COPD commonly develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. A decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings in COPD. Instead, COPD patients often present with an increased respiratory rate, weight loss, and a chronic cough with sputum production.

3. A healthcare professional assesses a client's respiratory status. Which information is of highest priority for the healthcare professional to obtain?

• A. Average daily fluid intake
• B. Neck circumference
• C. Height & weight
• D. Occupation & hobbies

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Obtaining information about a client's occupation and hobbies is crucial when assessing respiratory status as many respiratory problems can result from chronic exposure to inhalation irritants related to these activities. Understanding the client's potential exposure can help the healthcare professional identify risk factors and provide appropriate interventions to promote respiratory health.

4. A healthcare provider suspects anaphylaxis when caring for a client following the initial administration of an oral antibiotic. Which of the following should be the healthcare provider's priority intervention?

• A. Insert an IV line
• B. Count the respiratory rate
• C. Administer oxygen
• D. Prepare equipment for intubation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When suspecting anaphylaxis, the priority intervention is to assess the client's respiratory status by counting the respiratory rate. Respiratory distress is a hallmark sign of anaphylaxis, and prompt recognition and management are crucial. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence to determine the severity of the reaction and the need for immediate intervention. Inserting an IV line and preparing for intubation are important interventions in managing anaphylaxis but are secondary to ensuring adequate ventilation.

5. When a client develops an airway obstruction from a foreign body but remains conscious, which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Insert an oral airway
• B. Administer the abdominal thrust maneuver
• C. Turn the client to the side
• D. Perform a blind finger sweep

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops an airway obstruction and remains conscious, the nurse's initial action should be to administer the abdominal thrust maneuver. This technique, also known as the Heimlich maneuver, can help dislodge the obstructing object and clear the airway. Inserting an oral airway, turning the client to the side, or performing a blind finger sweep are not recommended as the first interventions for a conscious individual with an airway obstruction.

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