Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

• A. Carvedilol
• B. Fluticasone
• C. Captopril
• D. Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.

2. A client who received benzocaine spray before a recent bronchoscopy presents with continuous cyanosis despite oxygen therapy. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer albuterol treatment.
• B. Notify Rapid Response Team.
• C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses.
• D. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cyanosis unresponsive to oxygen therapy suggests methemoglobinemia, an adverse effect of benzocaine spray. Methemoglobinemia can lead to death if not managed promptly. The nurse should notify the Rapid Response Team to provide immediate advanced care. Administering albuterol would not address the underlying cause of cyanosis. Assessing peripheral pulses and obtaining cultures are not the priority as they do not directly address the urgent need to manage methemoglobinemia.

3. A client underwent a total laryngectomy. Which of the following is the priority observation in the client's care?

• A. Patency of the intravenous line
• B. Level of pain
• C. Integrity of the dressing
• D. Need for suctioning

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a total laryngectomy, maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent complications such as airway obstruction due to secretions or blood clots. Monitoring the need for suctioning takes precedence to ensure the client's airway remains patent. While monitoring pain levels, IV line patency, and dressing integrity are important aspects of care, ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning is the priority in this scenario.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor?

• A. Confusion
• B. Weakness
• C. Increased intracranial pressure
• D. Increased urinary output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, weakness is a common manifestation due to the immune system attacking the communication between nerves and muscles. Monitoring for weakness is crucial to assess the disease progression and determine the effectiveness of treatment. Confusion is not a typical manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Increased intracranial pressure and increased urinary output are not directly associated with this condition.

5. A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) requires care planning. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan?

• A. Administer low-flow oxygen continuously via nasal cannula.
• B. Encourage oral intake of at least 3,000 mL of fluids per day.
• C. Offer high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods frequently.
• D. Place in a prone position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), placing the client in a prone position helps improve ventilation-perfusion matching and oxygenation. This position can optimize lung function and is a beneficial intervention for clients with ARDS. Administering low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula, encouraging oral intake of excess fluids, or offering high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods are not primary interventions for ARDS and may not directly address the respiratory distress experienced by the client.

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