Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

• A. Carvedilol
• B. Fluticasone
• C. Captopril
• D. Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.

2. During an asthma attack, a healthcare provider is assessing a client for hypoxemia. Which of the following manifestations should the provider expect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dysphagia
• C. Agitation
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an asthma attack, hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain, causing symptoms like restlessness, confusion, and agitation. These manifestations result from the body's response to low oxygen levels, aiming to increase oxygenation. Nausea, dysphagia, and hypotension are not typical manifestations of hypoxemia during an asthma attack.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of this disease?

• A. Asymmetrical joint involvement
• B. Heberden's nodes
• C. Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes
• D. Pain that worsens with activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes is a hallmark symptom of rheumatoid arthritis. This prolonged morning stiffness is typically a distinguishing feature of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other types of arthritis, making it the most characteristic assessment finding for this disease.

4. A client who received benzocaine spray before a recent bronchoscopy presents with continuous cyanosis despite oxygen therapy. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer albuterol treatment.
• B. Notify Rapid Response Team.
• C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses.
• D. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cyanosis unresponsive to oxygen therapy suggests methemoglobinemia, an adverse effect of benzocaine spray. Methemoglobinemia can lead to death if not managed promptly. The nurse should notify the Rapid Response Team to provide immediate advanced care. Administering albuterol would not address the underlying cause of cyanosis. Assessing peripheral pulses and obtaining cultures are not the priority as they do not directly address the urgent need to manage methemoglobinemia.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being taught by a nurse about ways to facilitate eating. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will rest for at least 30 minutes before eating.
• B. I will take my bronchodilators after meals.
• C. I will eat five or six small meals each day.
• D. I will choose foods that are not gas-forming.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B, 'I will take my bronchodilators after meals,' indicates a need for further teaching. Bronchodilators should be taken before meals to help open the airways and make breathing easier before eating. This statement suggests a misunderstanding of the timing for optimal bronchodilator effectiveness. Options A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for facilitating eating for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

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