Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

• A. Carvedilol
• B. Fluticasone
• C. Captopril
• D. Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.

2. The provider requests the nurse to start an infusion of an inotropic agent on a client. How should the nurse explain the action of these drugs to the client and spouse?

• A. It constricts vessels, improving blood flow.
• B. It dilates vessels, which lessens the work of the heart.
• C. It increases the force of the heart's contractions.
• D. It slows the heart rate down for better filling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An inotropic agent is a medication that increases the force of the heart's contractions, which helps improve cardiac output. Choice A and B are incorrect as inotropic agents do not constrict or dilate vessels. Choice D is also incorrect as inotropic agents do not slow down the heart rate but rather enhance the heart's contractility.

3. A client has a chest tube in place connected to wall suction due to a right-sided pneumothorax. The client complains of chest burning. Which of the following actions should be taken?

• A. Increase the wall suction.
• B. Strip the chest tube.
• C. Clamp the chest tube.
• D. Reposition the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with a chest tube connected to wall suction complains of chest burning, it may indicate that the tube is irritating or compressing nearby tissues. Repositioning the client can help relieve this irritation by ensuring the tube is not kinked or pulling on the tissues. Increasing suction, stripping the tube, or clamping it are not appropriate actions and could potentially worsen the situation or cause harm.

4. While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?

• A. Airway obstruction
• B. Infection
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Paralytic ileus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.

5. A client with asthma is assessed by a nurse and presents with bilateral wheezing, decreased pulse oxygen saturation, and suprasternal retraction on inhalation. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer prescribed albuterol (Ventolin) inhaler.
• B. Assess the client for tracheal deviation.
• C. Administer oxygen to maintain saturations greater than 94%.
• D. Perform peak expiratory flow measurements.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suprasternal retraction during inhalation indicates the use of accessory muscles and difficulty in moving air due to airway narrowing, supported by bilateral wheezing and decreased pulse oxygen saturation. This client needs immediate intervention as their asthma is not responding to the medication. Administering oxygen to maintain saturations above 94% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. While administering a rescue inhaler could also be necessary, oxygen therapy takes priority in this situation.

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