Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has postoperative atelectasis and is hypoxic. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Bradypnea
• C. Lethargy
• D. Intercostal retractions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Postoperative atelectasis can lead to hypoxia, which causes respiratory distress. Intercostal retractions, where the muscles between the ribs pull inward during inspiration, are a common sign of respiratory distress in a client with atelectasis. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), Bradypnea (slow breathing rate), and lethargy are not typically associated with atelectasis and hypoxia.

2. The trauma unit nurse has received a report on a client who has multiple injuries following a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Evaluate chest expansion.
• B. Check pupillary response to light.
• C. Assess the capillary refill.
• D. Check the client's response to questions about place and time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with multiple injuries following a motor vehicle crash, the priority is to assess for any compromised airway or breathing. Evaluating chest expansion helps the nurse determine if the client is having any difficulty breathing, which is essential for immediate intervention to maintain adequate oxygenation. Checking pupillary response, assessing capillary refill, and checking the client's orientation to place and time are important assessments but are of lower priority compared to ensuring the client's airway and breathing are intact.

3. A client presents with shortness of breath, pain in the lung area, and a recent history of starting birth control pills and smoking. Vital signs include a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 40/min, and blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, PaO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 20 mEq/L, and SaO2 86%. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Prepare for mechanical ventilation.
• B. Administer oxygen via face mask.
• C. Prepare to administer a sedative.
• D. Assess for indications of pulmonary embolism.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a high respiratory rate, low PaO2, and low SaO2, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen via a face mask will help increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs and tissues, addressing the hypoxemia. While mechanical ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, administering oxygen is the initial and most appropriate intervention to address the client's respiratory distress. Sedatives should not be given without ensuring adequate oxygenation. Assessing for pulmonary embolism is important but not the priority at this moment when the client is experiencing respiratory distress and hypoxemia.

4. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

5. A student asks the faculty to explain best practices when communicating with a person from the LGBTQ community. What answer by the faculty is most accurate?

• A. Avoid embarrassing the individual by asking questions.
• B. Don't make assumptions about their health needs.
• C. Most LGBTQ individuals do not want to share information.
• D. No differences exist in communicating with this group.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is essential not to make assumptions about the health needs of individuals from the LGBTQ community. Each person is unique, and assuming their needs based on their sexual orientation or gender identity can lead to incorrect care and communication. By being open-minded and avoiding assumptions, healthcare providers can create a safe and supportive environment for LGBTQ individuals to discuss their health needs openly and honestly.

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