a nurse is assessing a client who has postoperative atelectasis and is hypoxic which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has postoperative atelectasis and is hypoxic. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Postoperative atelectasis can lead to hypoxia, which causes respiratory distress. Intercostal retractions, where the muscles between the ribs pull inward during inspiration, are a common sign of respiratory distress in a client with atelectasis. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), Bradypnea (slow breathing rate), and lethargy are not typically associated with atelectasis and hypoxia.

2. A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.

3. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

4. A client is caring for a postoperative client on the surgical unit. The client's blood pressure was 142/76 mm Hg 30 minutes ago and is now 88/50 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the significant drop in blood pressure indicates a potential emergency situation. The correct action is to call the Rapid Response Team (RRT) to ensure prompt intervention and prevent further deterioration that could lead to respiratory or cardiac arrest. It is crucial to act swiftly in response to such a critical change in vital signs to provide the client with the necessary care and support.

5. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Additionally, it can occur without a known cause, unlike stable angina which often has a trigger such as exertion.

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