ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. After a thoracentesis, a healthcare provider assesses a client. Which assessment finding warrants immediate action?
- A. The client rates pain as 5/10 at the site of the procedure.
- B. A small amount of drainage is noted from the site.
- C. Pulse oximetry reads 93% on 2 liters of oxygen.
- D. The trachea is deviated toward the opposite side of the neck.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A deviated trachea indicates a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency. This condition can rapidly lead to respiratory failure and requires immediate intervention. The other assessment findings, such as pain level, mild drainage, and slightly decreased oxygen saturation, are within an expected range after a thoracentesis and do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life.
2. A home health nurse visits a client who has COPD and receives oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow to 3 L/min.
- B. Assess the client's respiratory status.
- C. Call emergency services for the client.
- D. Have the client cough and expectorate secretions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with COPD on oxygen therapy reports difficulty breathing, the priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's respiratory status. This involves evaluating the client's oxygen saturation levels, respiratory rate, effort of breathing, lung sounds, and overall respiratory distress. By assessing the client's respiratory status, the nurse can determine the severity of the situation and make appropriate decisions regarding further interventions, such as adjusting oxygen flow rate, providing respiratory treatments, or seeking emergency assistance if necessary.
3. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask.
- B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position with their legs in a dependent position
- C. Give the client sublingual nitroglycerin
- D. Administer morphine sulfate IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart. Providing supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress. This intervention can help improve oxygen saturation, alleviate dyspnea, and support the client's respiratory function. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position with legs dependent can also help with respiratory effort, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence. Sublingual nitroglycerin and IV morphine sulfate are commonly used interventions for cardiac-related conditions, but in this case, addressing oxygenation is the priority to prevent further deterioration.
4. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)
- A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
- B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
- C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
- D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.
5. A client with asthma presents with bilateral wheezing, decreased pulse oxygen saturation, and suprasternal retraction on inhalation. Which actions should the nurse take? (SATA)
- A. Administer prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) inhaler.
- B. Assess the client for a tracheal deviation.
- C. Administer oxygen to maintain saturations above 94%.
- D. Perform peak expiratory flow measurements.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Suprasternal retraction during inhalation suggests the client is using accessory muscles due to difficulty in moving air into the respiratory passages caused by airway narrowing. The presence of bilateral wheezing and decreased pulse oxygen saturation further support airway narrowing. In this situation, immediate intervention is necessary to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen to maintain saturations above 94% is crucial to support oxygenation. While administering a rescue inhaler may be warranted, the priority in this scenario is ensuring adequate oxygenation to address the respiratory distress.
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