Nursing Elites

1. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

2. A client in the late stage of inhalation anthrax requires a plan of care. What is appropriate to include in the plan of care?

• A. Provide respiratory support.
• B. Place the client in droplet isolation.
• C. Administer antihypertensive medications.
• D. Monitor ascites.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the late stage of inhalation anthrax, respiratory support is crucial due to the potential for respiratory failure. Providing oxygen therapy and maintaining airway patency are essential components of care to improve oxygenation and support respiratory function. Placing the client in droplet isolation is not necessary as inhalation anthrax is not transmitted from person to person through respiratory droplets. Administering antihypertensive medications is not indicated in the treatment of inhalation anthrax. Monitoring for ascites is not a priority in the late stage of inhalation anthrax.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who had a myocardial infarction. Upon auscultating heart sounds, the provider hears the following sound. What action by the provider is most appropriate?

• A. Assess the client's lung sounds.
• B. Call the Rapid Response Team.
• C. Have the client sit upright.
• D. Listen to the client's lung sounds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The sound described is an S3 heart sound, which can indicate heart failure. The next appropriate action for the provider is to listen to the client's lung sounds. Lung sounds can provide additional information about the client's condition, especially when abnormal heart sounds are present. Calling the Rapid Response Team is not warranted based solely on the heart sound assessment. Having the client sit upright is not directly related to addressing the abnormal heart sound.

4. A nurse is caring for four hospitalized clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being at risk for fluid volume deficit?

• A. The client who has been NPO since midnight for endoscopy
• B. The client who has left-sided heart failure and has a brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 600 pg/mL
• C. The client who has end-stage renal failure and is scheduled for dialysis today
• D. The client who has gastroenteritis and is febrile

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gastroenteritis can lead to fluid loss through vomiting and diarrhea, especially when accompanied by fever. Fever can increase insensible water loss through sweating as well. Both vomiting and diarrhea can significantly contribute to fluid volume deficit, making the client with gastroenteritis and fever at higher risk compared to the other clients described in the options.

5. A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (SATA)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is a natural process of life.

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