Nursing Elites

1. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Organic nitrates
• C. Alpha blockers
• D. Beta blockers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

2. When administering subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty, what action should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Expel any air bubbles from the prefilled syringe before injecting.
• B. Insert the needle completely into the client's tissue.
• C. Administer the injection in the client's thigh.
• D. Aspirate carefully after inserting the needle into the client's skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering enoxaparin via a prefilled syringe for deep subcutaneous injection, the nurse should insert the needle completely into the client's tissue. This action ensures proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous layer, promoting optimal therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to expel air bubbles from a prefilled syringe. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or damage to tissues.

3. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, which adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Anxiety
• C. Sedation
• D. Palpitations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Dextromethorphan can cause sedation, so the client should be advised to avoid activities that require alertness. Diarrhea, anxiety, and palpitations are not commonly associated adverse effects of Dextromethorphan.

4. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased testosterone levels
• B. Increased libido
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia, as it is an adverse effect of leuprolide due to decreased testosterone levels. Leuprolide works by decreasing testosterone production, which can lead to gynecomastia, the development of male breast tissue. Monitoring for this side effect is essential for early detection and intervention.

5. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Monitor your heart rate regularly.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• D. Increase your fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia, leading to a decreased heart rate. Monitoring heart rate regularly is essential to detect any significant decreases promptly and seek medical attention. While choices A, C, and D may be relevant to the client's overall health, monitoring heart rate is the priority instruction due to the nature of Atenolol's effects. Taking the medication in the morning can be individualized based on the client's needs and preferences. Avoiding foods high in potassium and increasing fluid intake are generally beneficial but not directly related to managing the side effects of Atenolol.

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