the nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with angina which drug classes are not used to treat angina
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023

1. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

2. An adolescent client has a new prescription for Clomipramine for OCD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To minimize the adverse effect of photophobia associated with Clomipramine, the client should be advised to wear sunglasses when outdoors. Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) known to cause anticholinergic effects like photophobia, which can be reduced by protecting the eyes with sunglasses when exposed to bright light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because checking temperature daily, taking the medication in the morning, and adding extra calories to the diet are not specifically related to minimizing the adverse effect of photophobia caused by Clomipramine.

3. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client experiences permanent extrapyramidal effects caused by a previous medication. The healthcare provider should recognize that the medication affected which of the following systems in the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Central nervous. Extrapyramidal effects are movement disorders that can be caused by certain medications affecting the central nervous system, such as typical antipsychotic medications. These effects can lead to symptoms like tremors, muscle rigidity, and involuntary movements, which are all related to disruptions in the central nervous system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because extrapyramidal effects are specifically associated with the central nervous system and not the cardiovascular, immune, or gastrointestinal systems.

5. A client is prescribed Propylthiouracil (PTU) for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which adverse effect should the client be instructed to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. A sore throat and fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a serious adverse effect of PTU that can lead to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choice B, drowsiness, is not typically associated with PTU and is not a common adverse effect that needs to be reported. Choice C, urinary retention, is not a typical adverse effect of PTU; therefore, it is not the correct answer. Choice D, heat intolerance, is a symptom commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, which PTU is used to treat, so it is not an adverse effect that needs to be specifically reported.

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