Nursing Elites

1. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Organic nitrates
• C. Alpha blockers
• D. Beta blockers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

2. A healthcare professional is about to administer Propranolol to a patient. The healthcare professional takes the patient's apical pulse and documents it as 58 bpm. How should the healthcare professional proceed?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed
• B. Administer half of the normal dose
• C. Consider the extended-release form of the medication
• D. Withhold administration of the medication and notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's apical pulse is 58 bpm, it is below the normal range. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider to evaluate the patient's condition. Administering Propranolol in this situation can exacerbate bradycardia, leading to serious complications. Choosing to administer the medication as prescribed (Choice A) can put the patient at risk. Administering half of the normal dose (Choice B) without healthcare provider guidance is not appropriate in this case. Considering the extended-release form of the medication (Choice C) does not address the immediate concern of bradycardia and is not the best course of action.

3. A client is receiving long-term aspirin therapy. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hemorrhagic stroke
• B. Thromboembolic stroke
• C. Iron deficiency anemia
• D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemorrhagic stroke. Long-term aspirin therapy can lead to hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can predispose the individual to bleeding complications, including hemorrhagic stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin therapy is more likely to cause bleeding complications rather than thromboembolic events, iron deficiency anemia, or neutropenia.

4. A client has a new prescription for combination oral NRTIs for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

• A. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
• B. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
• C. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
• D. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. NRTI antiretroviral medications inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which is essential for HIV replication. By blocking this enzyme, the medications prevent the virus from replicating and spreading. This mechanism of action helps to control the progression of HIV infection in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because NRTIs do not work by preventing protein synthesis, weakening the cell wall of the virus, or blocking HIV entry into cells. These mechanisms are associated with different classes of antiretroviral medications used in HIV treatment.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can interact with Fentanyl causing severe sedation when administered concurrently. This is due to the additive central nervous system depressant effects of both medications, which can lead to excessive sedation, respiratory depression, and other serious adverse effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals need to monitor clients closely for signs of excessive sedation or respiratory depression when administering these medications together.

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