ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. Why should the nitrate patch be off for 8 hours per day?
- A. “There is no reason to take the patch off each day.”
- B. “The patch can be addictive; leaving it off reduces the addiction.”
- C. “You should only leave the patch off for 15 minutes.”
- D. “Leaving the patch off for 8 hours per day helps to delay the development of tolerance.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Removing the nitrate patch for 8 hours each day is essential to prevent the body from developing tolerance to the medication. By allowing the body to have a drug-free period, the effectiveness of the medication is maintained over time. This practice helps in ensuring that the nitrate patch continues to provide its intended therapeutic effects without diminishing its efficacy. Therefore, it is important for the client to adhere to the prescribed schedule of removing the patch for 8 hours daily to optimize the treatment outcomes.
2. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
- B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
- C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
- D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Offering oral hygiene every 2 hours is essential for a client receiving opioid analgesics to prevent dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting, which are common adverse effects associated with opioid use. This intervention promotes comfort and enhances the client's well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate for a client in labor receiving opioid analgesics, as it may be challenging and unnecessary during this time. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's pain level and the duration of action of the opioid. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but the priority in this case is to address the client's comfort and well-being by offering oral hygiene.
3. A client has a new prescription for Alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking Alendronate. Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation and even ulceration if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to pass through the esophagus and into the stomach, reducing the risk of irritation and complications. Choice A is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken in the morning, not at bedtime, and the client should remain upright after taking it. Choice C is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, usually in the morning, to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect because while calcium intake is important, it is not directly related to the administration of Alendronate.
4. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included by the nurse?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. Change positions slowly.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these potential adverse effects.
5. A client with streptococcal pneumonia is receiving penicillin G by intermittent IV bolus. 10 minutes into the infusion of the third dose, the client reports itching at the IV site, dizziness, and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the infusion.
- B. Call the provider.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed.
- D. Auscultate breath sounds.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction. The priority action for the nurse is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further administration of the allergen and worsening symptoms. Once the infusion is stopped, the nurse can then proceed with additional interventions, such as calling the provider, assessing the client's respiratory status, and providing appropriate care as needed.
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