ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. During a unit of whole blood transfusion, a client develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The healthcare professional should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Epinephrine
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of fluid overload, which can occur during blood transfusion. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such situations to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Therefore, the correct choice is C - Furosemide. Epinephrine (Choice A) is not indicated for fluid overload but for severe allergic reactions. Lorazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety or sedation, not for fluid overload. Diphenhydramine (Choice D) is an antihistamine often used for allergic reactions, not for fluid overload.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medical history and notes that the client has a prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Yellow-tinged vision
- D. Ringing in the ears
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision, along with nausea, vomiting, and confusion, are common manifestations of Digoxin toxicity. Visual disturbances are important to recognize as they can indicate the need for immediate medical attention and potential adjustment of Digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Bradycardia is a common therapeutic effect of Digoxin rather than a sign of toxicity. Ringing in the ears, or tinnitus, is also a potential side effect of Digoxin but is less specific to toxicity compared to yellow-tinged vision.
3. Which of the following drugs is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can be associated with Ethosuximide.
4. A client has been prescribed a new oral hypoglycemic agent for diabetes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take this medication with my evening snack.
- B. I will monitor my blood sugar levels before each meal.
- C. I will take this medication as soon as I wake up.
- D. I will follow my exercise plan as usual.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taking an oral hypoglycemic agent with an evening snack may lead to hypoglycemia during the night. It is important to follow the prescribed timing for medication administration to maintain blood sugar levels within the target range. The medication is usually taken before meals to help control postprandial blood glucose levels effectively. Choice B is correct as monitoring blood sugar levels before each meal is a good practice. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication upon waking up may align with certain oral hypoglycemic agents' dosing schedules. Choice D is also correct as regular exercise is an important part of managing diabetes.
5. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Ringing in the ears
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.
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