Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

2. A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding to your healthcare provider.
• C. Use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. Use an electric razor to prevent cuts.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement that the healthcare professional should include when educating a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding to their healthcare provider. Bleeding can indicate excessive anticoagulation, which is a serious side effect of warfarin. Prompt reporting of bleeding symptoms is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While avoiding foods high in vitamin K may be important when taking warfarin due to its interaction with the medication, it is not the priority over reporting signs of bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush and electric razor are general precautions for individuals on anticoagulants but are not as critical as reporting bleeding symptoms.

3. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone and is receiving discharge instructions. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• C. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• D. Decrease your intake of protein.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods. Prednisone can lead to potassium depletion; therefore, it is essential for clients to consume foods high in potassium such as bananas, oranges, and spinach to counteract this effect and maintain electrolyte balance. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy products is not directly related to the side effects of Prednisone. Choice C is incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin K is more relevant for clients on anticoagulants. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing protein intake is not a typical dietary instruction for clients prescribed Prednisone.

4. A client has a prescription for Amoxicillin. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with milk.
• C. Expect your stools to turn clay-colored.
• D. Complete the entire course of therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Complete the entire course of therapy. It is crucial for clients to complete the entire course of amoxicillin therapy to ensure the infection is fully treated and to prevent antibiotic resistance. Prematurely stopping the antibiotic can lead to incomplete eradication of the infection, potentially causing it to return and be more difficult to treat. Choices A and B are not specific to amoxicillin and are general medication administration instructions. Choice C is not a common side effect of amoxicillin and does not require patient education.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with angina. Which vital sign would cause the healthcare professional to question administering this drug?

• A. Respirations 12 breaths per minute
• B. Pulse 52 beats per minute
• C. Blood pressure 134/72
• D. Oxygen saturation 95%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker medication that can lower heart rate. A pulse of 52 beats per minute is relatively low and administering atenolol could further decrease the heart rate, potentially leading to bradycardia. Monitoring the pulse rate and holding the medication if the pulse is below the prescribed parameters is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as bradycardia and hypotension.

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