ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?
- A. Dry oral mucous membranes
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
- D. Anorexia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.
2. When caring for a client prescribed warfarin, which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. aPTT
- B. Platelet count
- C. BUN
- D. PT/INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct laboratory test to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin is the PT/INR. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and the PT/INR levels indicate the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Therefore, monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and is protected from potential complications related to clotting. Choice A (aPTT) is incorrect because while it measures the clotting time, it is not the preferred test for monitoring warfarin therapy. Choice B (Platelet count) is incorrect as it assesses the number of platelets and not the medication's therapeutic effect. Choice C (BUN) is unrelated to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy and is primarily used to assess kidney function.
3. A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for Vitamin B12 injections. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.
- C. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.
- D. Avoid consuming dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.' Clients with conditions like pernicious anemia or other causes of vitamin B12 deficiency may require lifelong cyanocobalamin supplementation to prevent deficiency. This is because their bodies are unable to absorb B12 from dietary sources adequately, necessitating ongoing injections to maintain optimal B12 levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A full glass of water is not necessary for Vitamin B12 injections. Metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of Vitamin B12 injections, and there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products specifically in relation to Vitamin B12 injections.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of Hydromorphone IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication over 5 minutes.
- B. Administer a dose of Naloxone prior to giving the Hydromorphone.
- C. Assess the client's blood pressure prior to administration.
- D. Inject the medication into the client's subcutaneous tissue.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The healthcare professional should administer IV Hydromorphone slowly over 5 minutes to reduce the risk of hypotension and respiratory depression. Rapid administration can lead to adverse effects due to its potency. Choice B is incorrect because Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, not routinely administered with Hydromorphone. Choice C is important but not specific to the administration of Hydromorphone. Choice D is incorrect as Hydromorphone is intended for intravenous use, not subcutaneous injection.
5. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Furosemide, a diuretic, commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) as it increases the excretion of sodium. The nurse needs to monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as confusion, weakness, and muscle cramps, by checking electrolyte levels regularly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia (choice A), hypernatremia (choice C), and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Furosemide use.
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