Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

2. A client has been prescribed diltiazem (Cardizem) and asks the nurse what type of drug this is. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. “A beta blocker.”
• B. “A sodium channel blocker.”
• C. “An alpha blocker.”
• D. “A calcium channel blocker.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diltiazem (Cardizem) belongs to the class of drugs known as calcium channel blockers. These medications work by blocking calcium from entering the muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels, leading to relaxation of the blood vessels and reduced workload on the heart. This helps in lowering blood pressure and improving blood flow. It is crucial for the nurse to provide accurate information to the client about the type of drug prescribed to ensure understanding and compliance with the treatment plan.

3. A client has a new prescription for Alendronate. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking Alendronate. This medication can cause esophageal irritation, and maintaining an upright position for at least 30 minutes helps prevent complications such as esophagitis or esophageal ulcers. Choice A is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, preferably 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day. Choice D is incorrect because while calcium intake is important, it is not a specific instruction related to taking Alendronate.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

5. A client with increased liver enzymes is taking herbal supplements. Which of the following herbal supplements should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Glucosamine
• B. Saw palmetto
• C. Kava
• D. St. John's wort

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chronic use or high doses of kava have been associated with liver damage, including severe liver failure. Therefore, the nurse should report the client's use of kava to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

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