ATI RN
Physical Exam Cardiovascular System
1. The client is on a calcium channel blocker. What is the expected effect on the heart?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Decreased heart rate
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is on a calcium channel blocker, the expected effect on the heart is a decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers work by dilating blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload, resulting in decreased blood pressure. Choice A, increased heart rate, is incorrect as calcium channel blockers actually have a negative chronotropic effect, reducing the heart rate. Choice C, increased blood pressure, is also incorrect because these medications are used to lower blood pressure.
2. What is the narrowing of the arteries due to the buildup of plaque, which can lead to heart attacks and strokes?
- A. Coronary artery disease
- B. Peripheral artery disease
- C. Aortic stenosis
- D. Mitral valve prolapse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Coronary artery disease is the correct answer. It is the narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries due to plaque buildup, which can lead to heart attacks and other cardiovascular issues. Choice B, Peripheral artery disease, involves the narrowing of arteries in the limbs, not specifically the coronary arteries. Choice C, Aortic stenosis, refers to the narrowing of the aortic valve opening, not the arteries. Choice D, Mitral valve prolapse, is a condition where the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle doesn't close properly, unrelated to arterial narrowing.
3. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.
4. The client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis. What is the most important lab value to monitor?
- A. Platelet count
- B. PT/INR
- C. aPTT
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When a client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox), monitoring the platelet count is crucial as enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), causing a decrease in platelet count. Monitoring the platelet count helps detect this adverse reaction early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enoxaparin therapy does not directly affect PT/INR, aPTT, or hemoglobin levels.
5. What is the condition where the arteries in the brain become blocked or narrowed, leading to reduced blood flow and a potential stroke?
- A. Cerebral atherosclerosis
- B. Coronary artery disease
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Peripheral artery disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cerebral atherosclerosis is the correct answer. It is a condition where the arteries in the brain become blocked or narrowed due to plaque buildup, leading to reduced blood flow and an increased risk of stroke. Choice B, Coronary artery disease, specifically affects the arteries supplying blood to the heart, not the brain. Choice C, Pulmonary embolism, involves a blockage in the pulmonary artery that affects blood flow to the lungs, not the brain. Choice D, Peripheral artery disease, refers to a condition where blockages occur in arteries outside of the heart and brain, typically affecting the limbs.
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