Nursing Elites

1. The client is on a calcium channel blocker. What is the expected effect on the heart?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Decreased blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is on a calcium channel blocker, the expected effect on the heart is a decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers work by dilating blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload, resulting in decreased blood pressure. Choice A, increased heart rate, is incorrect as calcium channel blockers actually have a negative chronotropic effect, reducing the heart rate. Choice C, increased blood pressure, is also incorrect because these medications are used to lower blood pressure.

2. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

3. The client is on warfarin and has an INR of 1.5. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Continue the current dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the client may be at risk of clot formation. The nurse's priority action should be to hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent further reduction of the INR. Increasing the dose could potentially lead to an increased risk of bleeding, and continuing the current dose may not be sufficient to bring the INR within the therapeutic range. Monitoring the client's INR closely is important but not the priority action in this scenario.

4. What is a chronic condition where the heart muscle becomes weakened and enlarged, reducing its ability to pump blood effectively?

• A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
• B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• C. Myocarditis
• D. Pericarditis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by the weakening and enlargement of the heart muscle, leading to its reduced ability to pump blood effectively. This condition is different from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which involves abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, myocarditis, which is inflammation of the heart muscle, and pericarditis, which is inflammation of the pericardium. Therefore, the correct answer is Dilated cardiomyopathy.

5. What is a surgical procedure to remove one of the lobes of the lungs, often performed to treat lung cancer?

• A. Lobectomy
• B. Pneumonectomy
• C. Thoracotomy
• D. Tracheostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A lobectomy is the correct answer. This surgical procedure involves removing one of the lobes of the lungs, commonly done to treat lung cancer or other serious lung ailments. Choice B, pneumonectomy, involves the complete removal of a lung, not just a lobe. Choice C, thoracotomy, is a surgical incision into the chest wall and is not specific to removing a lung lobe. Choice D, tracheostomy, is the creation of an opening in the windpipe to assist with breathing and is unrelated to lung lobe removal.

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