Nursing Elites

1. What is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the windpipe to assist with breathing?

• A. Tracheostomy
• B. Lobectomy
• C. Thoracotomy
• D. Pleurodesis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tracheostomy is the correct answer. It is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the windpipe (trachea) to assist with breathing. This procedure is commonly used for patients who require long-term ventilation support. Choice B, Lobectomy, involves the removal of a lobe of the lung and is not related to creating an opening in the windpipe. Choice C, Thoracotomy, is a surgical incision into the chest wall and is not specifically related to creating an opening in the windpipe. Choice D, Pleurodesis, is a procedure to treat recurrent pleural effusions by causing the pleural layers to stick together, and it is not related to creating an opening in the windpipe.

2. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Respiratory distress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.

3. What is a condition characterized by episodes of severe, acute shortness of breath, often occurring at night?

• A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
• B. Sleep apnea
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by sudden episodes of severe shortness of breath during sleep, often waking the individual. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but does not usually present with acute shortness of breath. Choice C, Orthopnea, refers to shortness of breath that occurs when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficult or labored breathing and does not specifically describe acute episodes at night.

4. What is a condition where the blood supply to part of the brain is interrupted or reduced, preventing brain tissue from getting oxygen and nutrients?

• A. Stroke
• B. Heart attack
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Pneumonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stroke occurs when the blood supply to part of the brain is interrupted or reduced, leading to brain cell death and potential disability. Choice B, a heart attack, involves a blockage in the blood vessels that supply the heart muscle. Choice C, a pulmonary embolism, is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs. Choice D, pneumonia, is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs.

5. The client on warfarin has an INR of 3.8. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer vitamin K.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.8 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin. Holding the next dose of warfarin would be appropriate if the INR was too high, but not as the first-line action. Increasing the dose of warfarin would worsen the situation by further increasing the INR. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to address the elevated INR is necessary.

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