Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.2 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Holding the next dose of warfarin is not enough to address the high INR, and increasing the dose would further elevate the INR level. Monitoring the INR closely is important, but in this case, immediate action is needed to counteract the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

2. What type of medication is used to reduce high blood pressure by relaxing the blood vessels?

• A. Calcium channel blocker
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. ACE inhibitor
• D. Diuretic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers are medications that reduce high blood pressure by relaxing the blood vessels, facilitating easier blood flow through the vessels. Beta-blockers work by reducing the heart rate and the heart's workload. ACE inhibitors help relax blood vessels by blocking the production of a chemical that narrows blood vessels. Diuretics help the body get rid of excess sodium and water to lower blood pressure, but they do not directly relax blood vessels like calcium channel blockers do.

3. Which term refers to the relaxation phase of the heart, during which the chambers fill with blood?

• A. Diastole
• B. Systole
• C. Refractoriness
• D. Automaticity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Diastole. Diastole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart muscles relax, allowing the chambers to fill with blood. Choice B, Systole, is incorrect as systole is the contraction phase of the heart when blood is pumped out of the chambers. Choice C, Refractoriness, refers to a period during which the heart muscle is unresponsive to stimuli. Choice D, Automaticity, relates to the heart's ability to generate its own electrical impulses.

4. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement
• B. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Continue the current digoxin dose
• D. Administer Digibind

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin and low potassium levels can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a potassium supplement (choice A) without healthcare provider guidance can worsen the situation. Continuing the current digoxin dose (choice C) can further increase the risk of toxicity. Administering Digibind (choice D) is used in severe cases of digoxin toxicity, not for addressing low potassium levels.

5. Which of the following is a genetic disorder that causes thick, sticky mucus to build up in the lungs and digestive system, leading to severe respiratory and digestive problems?

• A. Cystic fibrosis
• B. Pulmonary fibrosis
• C. Pulmonary edema
• D. Bronchiectasis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder characterized by the buildup of thick, sticky mucus in the lungs and digestive system, resulting in severe respiratory and digestive issues. Choice B, pulmonary fibrosis, involves scarring and thickening of lung tissue, not excessive mucus production. Choice C, pulmonary edema, refers to fluid accumulation in the lungs, not mucus buildup. Choice D, bronchiectasis, is a condition where the airways in the lungs are damaged and widened, leading to chronic cough and sputum production, but it does not specifically involve the thick, sticky mucus characteristic of cystic fibrosis.

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