Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.2 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Holding the next dose of warfarin is not enough to address the high INR, and increasing the dose would further elevate the INR level. Monitoring the INR closely is important, but in this case, immediate action is needed to counteract the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

2. The client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. Platelet count
• B. PT/INR
• C. aPTT
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When a client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox), monitoring the platelet count is crucial as enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), causing a decrease in platelet count. Monitoring the platelet count helps detect this adverse reaction early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enoxaparin therapy does not directly affect PT/INR, aPTT, or hemoglobin levels.

3. What is a surgical procedure to remove one of the lobes of the lungs, often performed to treat lung cancer?

• A. Lobectomy
• B. Pneumonectomy
• C. Thoracotomy
• D. Tracheostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A lobectomy is the correct answer. This surgical procedure involves removing one of the lobes of the lungs, commonly done to treat lung cancer or other serious lung ailments. Choice B, pneumonectomy, involves the complete removal of a lung, not just a lobe. Choice C, thoracotomy, is a surgical incision into the chest wall and is not specific to removing a lung lobe. Choice D, tracheostomy, is the creation of an opening in the windpipe to assist with breathing and is unrelated to lung lobe removal.

4. The client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache.
• B. Hold the next dose of nitroglycerin.
• C. Discontinue the nitroglycerin immediately.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Administering acetaminophen can help relieve the headache. Holding the next dose of nitroglycerin (Choice B) may not address the current headache, and discontinuing nitroglycerin immediately (Choice C) without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous due to the potential for rebound hypertension. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is not necessary for a common side effect like a headache, and the nurse can manage this symptom independently.

5. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement
• B. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Continue the current digoxin dose
• D. Administer Digibind

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin and low potassium levels can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a potassium supplement (choice A) without healthcare provider guidance can worsen the situation. Continuing the current digoxin dose (choice C) can further increase the risk of toxicity. Administering Digibind (choice D) is used in severe cases of digoxin toxicity, not for addressing low potassium levels.

Similar Questions