Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.2 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Holding the next dose of warfarin is not enough to address the high INR, and increasing the dose would further elevate the INR level. Monitoring the INR closely is important, but in this case, immediate action is needed to counteract the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

2. Which valve prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle from the aorta?

• A. Aortic valve
• B. Mitral valve
• C. Tricuspid valve
• D. Pulmonary valve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Aortic valve. The aortic valve is positioned between the left ventricle and the aorta. It prevents blood from flowing back into the left ventricle after it has been pumped into the aorta. The mitral valve (Choice B) is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle, the tricuspid valve (Choice C) is between the right atrium and right ventricle, and the pulmonary valve (Choice D) is situated between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. Therefore, they are not responsible for preventing backflow from the aorta into the left ventricle.

3. What is a condition where the heart beats too slowly, reducing the amount of blood pumped to the body?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Atrial fibrillation
• D. Ventricular fibrillation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by a slow heart rate, which reduces the amount of blood pumped to the body. This can lead to symptoms like fatigue and dizziness. Choice B, Tachycardia, is the opposite condition where the heart beats too fast. Choices C and D, Atrial fibrillation and Ventricular fibrillation, refer to irregular and potentially life-threatening rapid heart rhythms involving the atria and ventricles respectively, not a slow heart rate.

4. The nurse is caring for a client on amiodarone who develops a cough. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• B. Reassure the client that this is a common side effect.
• C. Continue the amiodarone and monitor the client’s symptoms.
• D. Discontinue the amiodarone immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when a client on amiodarone develops a cough, which can be a sign of pulmonary toxicity, a serious side effect of amiodarone, is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial because pulmonary toxicity can lead to severe complications if not addressed promptly. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not address the potential severity of the situation and may delay necessary intervention. Choice D of discontinuing amiodarone immediately without consulting the healthcare provider can be risky, as sudden discontinuation of the medication may have adverse effects on the client's condition.

5. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client, what is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. Platelet count
• B. aPTT
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. INR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox), it is crucial to monitor the platelet count because enoxaparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, which is a decrease in platelet count that can lead to increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring the platelet count allows for early detection of this potential complication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aPTT, Hemoglobin, and INR are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically when administering enoxaparin.

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