Nursing Elites

1. The nurse enters a client’s room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client’s record and noted that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?

• A. Telephone the client’s family and have them persuade the client to stay
• B. Have the client read and sign all the appropriate self-discharge papers
• C. Explain to the client that he cannot leave because he asked for treatment
• D. Notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital. This action is crucial as it ensures that the client’s care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is not the best choice as involving the family to persuade the client may not address the client's underlying concerns. Option B is incorrect because having the client sign self-discharge papers without further assessment is not appropriate. Option C is also incorrect as the client's request for treatment does not prevent them from leaving if they are deemed competent to make that decision.

2. The client diagnosed with thalassemia, a hereditary anemia, is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. The cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. Which precaution should the nurse implement when initiating the transfusion?

• A. Start the transfusion at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes
• B. Re-crossmatch the blood until the antibodies are identified
• C. Have the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood
• D. Have the unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Starting the transfusion slowly at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes is the correct precaution to implement when the cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. This allows the nurse to monitor for any adverse reactions due to the presence of antibodies. Re-crossmatching the blood until the antibodies are identified is not practical and may delay the transfusion, potentially compromising the patient's condition. Having the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood is not the best course of action as the focus should be on ensuring a safe transfusion. Having an unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client does not address the specific precaution needed to manage a transfusion in the presence of antibodies.

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?

• A. Performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures
• B. Managing other paraprofessional personnel
• C. Managing ward or unit operations
• D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. A practical nurse's major duties include performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (Choice A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (Choice B), and managing ward or unit operations (Choice C). These duties are more aligned with the responsibilities of a practical nurse, emphasizing patient care and coordination within a healthcare setting.

4. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

5. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client will the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who is constipated
• B. The client on bed rest who ambulated to the bathroom
• C. The client with essential hypertension who has epistaxis and a headache
• D. The client with arterial occlusive disease who has a decreased pedal pulse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because epistaxis and headache in a client with hypertension are signs of a hypertensive crisis that necessitate immediate intervention. Choice A is incorrect as constipation in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, while important, does not indicate an immediate crisis. Choice B is incorrect as a client on bed rest ambulating to the bathroom is a positive sign. Choice D is incorrect because a decreased pedal pulse in arterial occlusive disease should be addressed promptly, but it does not indicate an acute emergency like a hypertensive crisis.

Similar Questions