Nursing Elites

1. The nurse enters a client’s room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client’s record and noted that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?

• A. Telephone the client’s family and have them persuade the client to stay
• B. Have the client read and sign all the appropriate self-discharge papers
• C. Explain to the client that he cannot leave because he asked for treatment
• D. Notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital. This action is crucial as it ensures that the client’s care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is not the best choice as involving the family to persuade the client may not address the client's underlying concerns. Option B is incorrect because having the client sign self-discharge papers without further assessment is not appropriate. Option C is also incorrect as the client's request for treatment does not prevent them from leaving if they are deemed competent to make that decision.

2. What is the primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia?

• A. The client will call the healthcare provider if feeling ill.
• B. The client will be compliant with the medical regimen.
• C. The client will live as normal a life as possible.
• D. The client will verbalize understanding of treatments.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The client will live as normal a life as possible.' For a client with sickle cell anemia, the primary goal of care is to promote a good quality of life by managing symptoms, preventing crises, and enhancing overall well-being. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on a specific action rather than the overall goal of care. Option B is important but not the primary goal; compliance is a means to achieve better health outcomes. Option D is also important but does not address the holistic approach of helping the client maintain a normal lifestyle despite their condition.

3. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

• A. Potassium
• B. Calcium
• C. Iron
• D. Zinc

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. In renal failure, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc are not typically restricted in chronic renal failure unless there are specific individual circumstances, making them incorrect choices.

4. Who is at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions?

• A. Infants
• B. People with diabetes
• C. Women of childbearing age
• D. Older men and women

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Older men and women are at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions due to factors such as polypharmacy and physiological changes. Polypharmacy, common in older adults, increases the likelihood of interactions between drugs and nutrients. Physiological changes that occur with aging can affect how drugs and nutrients are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the body. Infants, people with diabetes, and women of childbearing age are not typically considered high-risk groups for drug-nutrient interactions compared to older adults.

5. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.

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