Nursing Elites

1. The nurse enters a client’s room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client’s record and noted that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?

• A. Telephone the client’s family and have them persuade the client to stay
• B. Have the client read and sign all the appropriate self-discharge papers
• C. Explain to the client that he cannot leave because he asked for treatment
• D. Notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital. This action is crucial as it ensures that the client’s care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is not the best choice as involving the family to persuade the client may not address the client's underlying concerns. Option B is incorrect because having the client sign self-discharge papers without further assessment is not appropriate. Option C is also incorrect as the client's request for treatment does not prevent them from leaving if they are deemed competent to make that decision.

2. Protecting the rights and privacy of the patient and their family is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In nursing care, implementation involves putting the nursing care plan into action. This step includes safeguarding the rights and privacy of the patient and their family by providing care in a respectful and confidential manner. Evaluation (A) is about assessing the effectiveness of the care provided. Planning (B) is the stage where specific interventions are designed. Assessment (D) is the initial step where data is collected to identify the patient's needs.

3. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

4. Which of the following drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?

• A. Antacids
• B. Certain antibiotics
• C. Cholesterol-lowering medications
• D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs are known to contribute to peptic ulcers by affecting the gastric mucosa. Choice A, Antacids, actually help to alleviate symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Choice B, Certain antibiotics, are used to treat H. pylori infections, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Choice C, Cholesterol-lowering medications, do not contribute to peptic ulcers.

5. Which of the following grains is acceptable for someone with celiac disease?

• A. Rice
• B. Rye
• C. Wheat
• D. Barley

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rice. Rice is a gluten-free grain, making it safe for individuals with celiac disease. Choices B, C, and D (Rye, Wheat, and Barley) contain gluten and are not suitable for individuals with celiac disease, as gluten can trigger adverse reactions in their bodies.

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