Nursing Elites

1. The nurse enters a client’s room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client’s record and noted that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?

• A. Telephone the client’s family and have them persuade the client to stay
• B. Have the client read and sign all the appropriate self-discharge papers
• C. Explain to the client that he cannot leave because he asked for treatment
• D. Notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital. This action is crucial as it ensures that the client’s care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is not the best choice as involving the family to persuade the client may not address the client's underlying concerns. Option B is incorrect because having the client sign self-discharge papers without further assessment is not appropriate. Option C is also incorrect as the client's request for treatment does not prevent them from leaving if they are deemed competent to make that decision.

2. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitious activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

3. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?

• A. The client’s BP is 110/70
• B. The client’s potassium level is 3.4 mEq/L
• C. The client has a barky cough
• D. The client’s apical pulse is 56

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering the medication as the blood pressure is within a normal range for a client with essential hypertension. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C suggests a potential side effect of an ACE inhibitor, not a beta blocker.

4. Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client’s medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Explain to the client that it is too early to have an injection for pain
• B. Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders
• C. Reposition the client for greater comfort and turn on the television as a distraction
• D. Prepare the injection and administer it to the client early because of the severe pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client's symptoms, including severe abdominal pain, pallor, perspiration, thready rapid pulse, and feeling faint, are indicative of potential complications like internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Explaining to the client that it is too early for pain medication or repositioning the client for comfort are not appropriate actions given the severity of the symptoms. Administering the injection early without consulting the practitioner can be dangerous and may worsen the client's condition.

5. A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client’s fluid status?

• A. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output
• B. Weighing the client daily at the same time each day
• C. Assessing the client’s vital signs every 4 hours
• D. Checking the client’s lungs for crackles during every shift

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weighing the client daily at the same time each day is the most accurate method for monitoring fluid balance. Changes in body weight can reflect fluid retention or loss. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate changes in fluid status. Assessing vital signs (Choice C) can offer some information but may not be as specific to fluid status as daily weighing. Checking the client's lungs for crackles (Choice D) is more related to assessing respiratory status rather than direct fluid monitoring.

Similar Questions