the client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at ho
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3

1. The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's presentation of acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood indicates a potential gastrointestinal bleeding emergency. Assessing the client's vital signs is essential to monitor their hemodynamic status. Starting an IV with an 18-gauge needle is crucial to establish access for potential fluid resuscitation or blood transfusion. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation and could potentially delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the correct interventions for the nurse to implement are to assess the client’s vital signs and start an IV, making option D the most appropriate choice. Options A and B are correct because they are essential initial steps in managing gastrointestinal bleeding. Option C is incorrect as iced saline lavage is not indicated and may not address the urgent needs of the client in this critical situation.

2. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct anatomical position for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis is the second intercostal space, right sternal border. This is where the aortic valve is best auscultated, and the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the murmur of aortic stenosis is best heard at the second intercostal space on the right side of the sternum.

3. After attempting suicide by taking 200 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets, a client is transferred from the emergency department to the locked psychiatric unit. The client is now awake and alert but refuses to speak with the nurse. In this situation, what is the nurse’s first priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's first priority in this situation is to ensure the client's safety by initiating suicide precautions. This involves removing any potential means of self-harm and closely monitoring the client to prevent further attempts. While establishing rapport and communication are important, safety is paramount at this critical juncture. Placing the client in full restraints should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for immediate safety concerns.

4. What type of food should a patient taking anticoagulants be cautious about consuming?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming high-vitamin K foods. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants by affecting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly interact with the action of anticoagulants.

5. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Educate personnel on UCMJ'?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Personal/professional development.' Educating personnel on the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) falls under the realm of personal/professional development, as it aims to enhance the knowledge and skills of individuals regarding military laws and regulations. Choice A, 'Accountability,' focuses more on responsibility and answerability rather than education. Choice C, 'Individual training,' is more specific to skill development and job-related learning rather than legal education. Choice D, 'Military appearance/physical condition,' pertains to maintaining physical standards and appearance, which is unrelated to educating personnel on UCMJ.

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