listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management which of these categories i
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ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Conduct physical training'?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Military appearance/physical condition.' The task 'Conduct physical training' aligns with the category of 'Military appearance/physical condition,' as it involves overseeing physical training activities related to maintaining a certain physical standard. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because 'Accountability' pertains to being answerable for one's actions, 'Personal/professional development' focuses on individual growth and learning, and 'Individual training' is specific to training on a personal level, none of which directly relate to the task of conducting physical training in the context of military appearance and physical condition.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

3. In determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient, which step involves assessing whether the care provided is appropriate and effective in relation to the patient's current physiological and psychological status?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Evaluation.' Evaluation in nursing involves assessing whether the care provided is appropriate and effective in relation to the patient's current physiological and psychological status. This step helps determine the outcomes of the care provided and if any changes are needed. Choice B, 'Planning,' focuses on developing a plan of care based on the assessment findings. Choice C, 'Implementation,' involves carrying out the plan of care. Choice D, 'Assessment,' is the initial step in the nursing process that involves gathering data about the patient's health status.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

5. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Second intercostal space, right sternal border. The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border, where the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the recommended anatomical positions for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis.

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