ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Conduct physical training'?
- A. Accountability
- B. Personal/professional development
- C. Individual training
- D. Military appearance/physical condition
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Military appearance/physical condition.' The task 'Conduct physical training' aligns with the category of 'Military appearance/physical condition,' as it involves overseeing physical training activities related to maintaining a certain physical standard. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because 'Accountability' pertains to being answerable for one's actions, 'Personal/professional development' focuses on individual growth and learning, and 'Individual training' is specific to training on a personal level, none of which directly relate to the task of conducting physical training in the context of military appearance and physical condition.
2. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is
- A. Dorsal recumbent
- B. Side lying
- C. Supine
- D. Lithotomy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. The other options (dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine) do not provide the same level of access and visualization as the lithotomy position, making them less ideal for vaginal and cervical examinations.
3. A client is prescribed lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
- A. Constipation
- B. Dizziness
- C. Headache
- D. B, C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Dizziness' and 'Headache'. ACE inhibitors like lisinopril are known to cause these common side effects due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Choice A, 'Constipation', is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors. While constipation can be a side effect of some medications, it is not typically seen with ACE inhibitors. Therefore, options A and B are incorrect choices.
4. In supply and equipment management, what is the FIRST step in the procurement process?
- A. Keep hand receipts up to date
- B. Establish requirements
- C. Requisition supplies and equipment through the proper channels
- D. Properly receive, inspect, and store required items
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the procurement process, the FIRST step is to establish requirements. This step involves identifying and defining the needs for supplies and equipment before moving forward with the procurement process. Keeping hand receipts up to date (Choice A) is a task related to tracking and managing inventory but comes after the requirements have been established. Requisitioning supplies and equipment (Choice C) and receiving, inspecting, and storing items (Choice D) are subsequent steps in the procurement process that follow after the requirements have been determined.
5. The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client with three (3) unifocal PVCs in a minute
- B. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease who wants to ambulate
- C. The client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse with an audible S3
- D. The client diagnosed with pericarditis who is in normal sinus rhythm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure and requires immediate assessment. Choice A is not as urgent as an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse. Choice B, a client with coronary artery disease wanting to ambulate, does not present an immediate concern compared to a potential heart failure indicated by an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable and does not require immediate attention when compared to a potential heart failure situation signified by an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse.
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