ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
- A. Constipation
- B. Dizziness
- C. Headache
- D. B, C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.
2. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:
- A. Protein
- B. Sodium
- C. Cholesterol
- D. Fat
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease are advised to reduce their fat intake because fats can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and bloating. While protein, sodium, and cholesterol may also impact overall health, reducing fat intake specifically helps manage gallbladder-related symptoms effectively. Protein is important for tissue repair, sodium can affect blood pressure, and cholesterol levels impact heart health, but in the context of gallbladder disease, fat reduction is the most beneficial.
3. The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client with three (3) unifocal PVCs in a minute
- B. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease who wants to ambulate
- C. The client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse with an audible S3
- D. The client diagnosed with pericarditis who is in normal sinus rhythm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is less urgent as occasional unifocal PVCs are common. Choice B is important but can be addressed after the client with an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable compared to a client with potential heart failure symptoms.
4. Which drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?
- A. Antacids
- B. Certain antibiotics
- C. Cholesterol-lowering medications
- D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are known to contribute to the development of peptic ulcers by affecting the protective lining of the stomach and increasing stomach acid production. This can lead to irritation and ulcer formation. Antacids are actually used to relieve symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Certain antibiotics may be prescribed to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Cholesterol-lowering medications are not typically associated with causing peptic ulcers.
5. Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?
- A. Army Nurse Corps officer
- B. First Sergeant
- C. E6, E7, or E8
- D. E3, E4, or E5
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by personnel ranked E6, E7, or E8 in the military structure. These individuals have the necessary experience and leadership skills to fulfill the responsibilities associated with these roles. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because these positions are not specifically designated for Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 personnel in the military hierarchy.
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