Nursing Elites

1. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?

• A. "I will take this medication with a full glass of milk."
• B. "I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast."
• C. "I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee."
• D. "I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should not be taken with milk as it can impair iron absorption. Choice B is correct as taking the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast is appropriate. Choice C is correct as coffee can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D is correct as antacids should be taken 2 hours after ferrous sulfate to avoid interference with its absorption.

2. A client who is postpartum and has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?

• A. Yogurt and mozzarella
• B. Spinach and beef
• C. Fish and cottage cheese
• D. Turkey slices and milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Spinach and beef.' Spinach and beef are high in iron, which is crucial for treating iron deficiency anemia. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, making them effective choices to increase iron levels in the body. Yogurt and mozzarella (Choice A), fish and cottage cheese (Choice C), and turkey slices and milk (Choice D) do not contain as high iron content as spinach and beef, making them less effective in addressing iron deficiency anemia.

3. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

4. The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?

• A. Client with chronic kidney disease and serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL
• B. Client with diabetes mellitus and a glycosylated hemoglobin A (HbA1c) of 7.0%
• C. Client with heart failure and a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) of 140 pg/mL
• D. Client who is male and has anemia with hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Elevated HbA1c levels suggest a higher average blood sugar over the past 2-3 months, increasing the risk of complications associated with diabetes. Choices A, C, and D do not require immediate follow-up based solely on the provided information. A serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL in a client with chronic kidney disease, a BNP of 140 pg/mL in a client with heart failure, and hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45% in a male client with anemia are within acceptable ranges or do not indicate an urgent need for intervention.

5. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:

• A. Protein
• B. Sodium
• C. Cholesterol
• D. Fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of fat because high-fat foods can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and indigestion. While proteins, sodium, and cholesterol may also need to be moderated for overall health, reducing fat intake is particularly crucial for managing gallbladder issues.

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