ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023 Test Bank
1. What is the initial major sign of acute renal failure?
- A. Oliguria
- B. Hematuria
- C. Proteinuria
- D. Glycosuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is often the initial major sign of acute renal failure. This reduction in urine output indicates that the kidneys are not functioning properly. Hematuria (blood in urine), proteinuria (presence of protein in urine), and glycosuria (presence of glucose in urine) are not typically the initial major signs of acute renal failure. While they may be present in certain conditions, oliguria is the most common and critical indicator of acute renal failure.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Albumin in my urine is an indication of normal kidney function.
- B. I will keep my HbA1c at five percent.
- C. I will have ketones in my urine if my blood glucose is maintained at 190 milligrams per deciliter.
- D. I will keep my blood glucose levels between 200 and 212 milligrams per deciliter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Maintaining an HbA1c level of 5 percent indicates good long-term blood glucose control and understanding of diabetes management. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of albumin in the urine (albuminuria) is actually an indication of kidney damage in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as ketones in the urine are a sign of inadequate insulin and can occur when blood glucose levels are high, not at a specific level like 190 mg/dL. Choice D is also incorrect as the client should aim to keep blood glucose levels within a tighter range for better control, typically between 80-130 mg/dL before meals and less than 180 mg/dL after meals.
3. During which phase of the therapeutic relationship should the nurse inform the patient about the termination of therapy?
- A. Pre-orientation
- B. Orientation
- C. Working
- D. Termination
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Termination'. This phase of the therapeutic relationship is when the nurse informs the patient about the conclusion of therapy. It is during this phase that the nurse and the patient review the goals and progress made and also discuss the upcoming termination. The other phases are not the appropriate times for discussing termination. 'Pre-orientation' is the phase before the nurse-patient relationship is established; 'Orientation' is when the nurse and patient get to know each other and set goals; and 'Working' is when these goals are pursued. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
4. Membership dropout generally occurs in group therapy after a member:
- A. Accomplishes his goal in joining the group
- B. Discovers that his feelings are shared by the group members
- C. Experiences feelings of frustration in the group
- D. Discusses personal concerns with group members
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.
5. A nurse is caring for a client following an appendectomy. The nurse verifies the postoperative prescription which reads, 'Discontinue NPO status; advance diet as tolerated.' Which of the following are appropriate for the nurse to offer the client? (SATA)
- A. Wheat toast
- B. Applesauce
- C. Applesauce, Chicken broth
- D. Chicken broth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Applesauce and chicken broth. After an appendectomy, patients are typically started on a clear liquid diet before advancing to more solid foods. Applesauce and chicken broth are part of a low-residue diet that is easily digestible and gentle on the digestive system, making them suitable choices for a client following surgery. Wheat toast may be too heavy and fibrous initially, while other solid foods should be introduced gradually to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
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