Nursing Elites

1. What is the initial major sign of acute renal failure?

• A. Oliguria
• B. Hematuria
• C. Proteinuria
• D. Glycosuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is often the initial major sign of acute renal failure. This reduction in urine output indicates that the kidneys are not functioning properly. Hematuria (blood in urine), proteinuria (presence of protein in urine), and glycosuria (presence of glucose in urine) are not typically the initial major signs of acute renal failure. While they may be present in certain conditions, oliguria is the most common and critical indicator of acute renal failure.

2. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN is awaiting the next container. What fluid should the nurse infuse in the interim?

• A. Dextrose 5% in water
• B. 0.9% sodium chloride
• C. Dextrose 10% in water
• D. Lactated Ringer's solution

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 0.9% sodium chloride. When a client receiving TPN is awaiting the next container, infusing 0.9% sodium chloride is the appropriate choice to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance. Dextrose solutions are not recommended as they do not provide sufficient nutrition. Lactated Ringer's solution contains electrolytes but lacks essential nutrients found in TPN, making it an inadequate choice during the delay in TPN delivery.

3. As a Nurse Manager, DMLM enjoys her staff of talented and self motivated individuals. She knew that the leadership style to suit the needs of this kind of people is called:

• A. Autocratic
• B. Participative
• C. Democratic
• D. Laissez Faire

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. What is the primary food safety concern for a patient undergoing chemotherapy?

• A. Possible food allergy reactions
• B. Possible food-drug interactions
• C. Possible pesticide residue
• D. Potential risk of foodborne illness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potential risk of foodborne illness. Patients undergoing chemotherapy have compromised immune systems, making them more susceptible to foodborne illnesses. Chemotherapy can reduce the count of white blood cells, which impairs the body's ability to fight off infections from bacteria or other pathogens that might be present in food. Therefore, the prevention of foodborne illnesses is a critical concern for these patients. Choices A, B, and C, while they represent valid concerns for food safety in general, are not the primary concern for patients undergoing chemotherapy. These patients are at a heightened risk of experiencing severe complications from foodborne illnesses, making it a more significant concern than potential food allergies, food-drug interactions, or pesticide residues.

5. Each statement is true regarding oral exposure to fermentable carbohydrates, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Longer exposure leads to an increased risk of demineralization
• B. Longer exposure increases the opportunity for remineralization
• C. The Stephan curve illustrates pH changes within plaque after rinsing with a sugar solution
• D. The critical pH at which enamel decalcification occurs is 5.5 or less

Correct answer: B

Rationale: All the statements above are accurate about oral exposure to fermentable carbohydrates, except for option B. In fact, longer exposure to these carbohydrates decreases the opportunity for remineralization. This is because the process of demineralization, in which minerals are lost from the tooth enamel, is sped up by the presence of fermentable carbohydrates. The Stephan curve (option C) is a graph that demonstrates how the pH of dental plaque changes after a sugar rinse, usually dropping (becoming more acidic), which can lead to enamel decalcification. Option D is also accurate, as a pH of 5.5 or lower is the critical point at which enamel starts to decalcify.

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