ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. What side effect is commonly associated with ECT?
- A. Transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Fractures
- D. Hypertension and increased heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, as Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is commonly associated with side effects such as transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation. While nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur, they are not as common as the memory-related side effects. Fractures (Choice C) are unlikely unless a mishap occurs during the procedure. Hypertension and increased heart rate (Choice D) might occur during the procedure due to the physiological stress of the treatment, but these are not the most commonly associated side effects. The rationale provided did not effectively explain this, so it's important to note that ECT is a procedure often used for severe depression and other mental illnesses, and understanding its side effects is crucial for patient safety and effective care.
2. A patient has difficulty ambulating after surgery. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage deep breathing exercises.
- B. Assist the patient in ambulating a short distance.
- C. Call for assistance with ambulation.
- D. Assess the patient's pain level before ambulation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a patient has difficulty ambulating after surgery is to call for assistance with ambulation. This is essential to ensure the safety of the patient and prevent any potential falls or injuries. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice A) may be beneficial but should not be the first priority when the patient is having difficulty walking. Assisting the patient in ambulating a short distance (Choice B) may put both the patient and the nurse at risk if the patient is struggling. Assessing the patient's pain level before ambulation (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring that the patient can safely ambulate with assistance.
3. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.
4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?
- A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
- B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
- C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
- D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.
5. A female client with anxiety disorder is being taught about alprazolam by a nurse. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication may increase your blood pressure
- B. Use a reliable form of contraception while taking this medication
- C. If a dose is missed, double the next dose of medication
- D. Do not eat aged cheeses while taking this medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alprazolam can increase the risk of pregnancy complications, so using a reliable form of contraception is essential to prevent unintended pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because alprazolam typically does not increase blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as doubling the next dose after a missed dose can lead to overdose and adverse effects. Choice D is unrelated to alprazolam and is not a concern when taking this medication.