Nursing Elites

1. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for clients in the acute manic phase of bipolar disorder is:

• A. Risk for injury directed to self
• B. Risk for injury directed to others
• C. Impaired nutrition less than body requirements
• D. Ineffective individual coping

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

2. Where does carbohydrate digestion begin?

• A. Mouth
• B. Esophagus
• C. Stomach
• D. Small intestine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth. The enzyme amylase, found in saliva, starts the process by breaking down starches into sugars. The esophagus is a passageway for food to reach the stomach and does not participate in digestion. The stomach mainly digests proteins and is not the primary site for carbohydrate breakdown. While the small intestine does play a crucial role in digesting carbohydrates, it is not where the process initiates. Therefore, the correct answer is the mouth.

3. Which factor contributes to the development of bone diseases in patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) due to retention?

• A. Iron
• B. Sodium
• C. Potassium
• D. Phosphorus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is phosphorus. Retention of phosphorus in patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) contributes to the development of bone disorders, including osteodystrophy, because it disrupts the balance of calcium and phosphorus in the body. This imbalance leads to a variety of bone diseases. The other options - iron, sodium, and potassium - while important in the overall metabolic function, are not directly linked to the development of bone diseases in CKD patients due to retention.

4. The nurse is planning education about appropriate protein food choices for a client who has recently been prescribed a renal diet. Which protein food items should the nurse include in the education?

• A. Yogurt, seeds, and lentils
• B. Beef, bacon, and nuts
• C. Peanut butter, beans, and peas
• D. Poultry, eggs, and fish

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Poultry, eggs, and fish. These protein sources are high-quality proteins suitable for a renal diet as they provide essential amino acids without excessive amounts of potassium or phosphorus. Choice A, yogurt, seeds, and lentils, may be high in potassium and phosphorus, which could be restricted in a renal diet. Choice B, beef, bacon, and nuts, are also high in phosphorus and may not be ideal for a renal diet. Choice C, peanut butter, beans, and peas, are high in potassium and phosphorus, making them less suitable for a renal diet.

5. Which physiologic effect should the nurse expect in a client addicted to hallucinogens?

• A. Dilated pupils
• B. Constricted pupils
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients addicted to hallucinogens often exhibit constricted pupils due to the effects of the drug on the sympathetic nervous system. This sympathetic stimulation causes the pupils to constrict rather than dilate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dilated pupils are more commonly associated with stimulant use, while bradycardia (slow heart rate) and bradypnea (slow breathing) are not typical effects of hallucinogens.

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