ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam
1. Mr. Bradley has been advised to limit his dairy product intake. What principle regarding fluid intake should be followed?
- A. Gelatin, soups, fruit ices, and frozen fruit bars contribute to your fluid intake
- B. Drink milk in moderation
- C. Increase fiber intake
- D. Limit protein intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For patients with kidney disease, it's important to manage fluid intake from all sources, including foods like gelatin and soups, which can contribute to fluid overload.
2. Which of the following groups of vitamins are fat-soluble?
- A. vitamins B and C
- B. vitamins A and C
- C. vitamins B, E, K, D
- D. vitamins A, E, K, D
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: vitamins A, E, K, and D. Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed along with fats in the diet and can be stored in the body's fatty tissue. Vitamins B and C are water-soluble vitamins and are not stored in the body; any excess amounts are usually excreted in the urine. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
3. What is a major strength of the clinical interview?
- A. Makes comparing individuals' responses very easy
- B. Can provide a large amount of information in a fairly brief period
- C. Is directed toward understanding a culture or distinct social group
- D. Allows researchers to see the behavior of interest as it occurs in natural settings
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The major strength of the clinical interview is that it can provide a large amount of information in a fairly brief period. This allows researchers to gather detailed data about an individual's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors efficiently. Choice A is incorrect because the clinical interview focuses on gathering information from individuals rather than comparing their responses. Choice C is incorrect as clinical interviews are primarily aimed at understanding individuals rather than cultures or social groups. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a strength of naturalistic observations, not clinical interviews.
4. A patient on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?
- A. Reduced cardiac function
- B. First-pass effect
- C. Reduced hepatic function
- D. Increased gastric motility
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This prolonged effect may result in drowsiness the next morning. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary for this client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Reduced cardiac function (Choice A) is not typically associated with drowsiness due to medication effects. The first-pass effect (Choice B) relates to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before reaching systemic circulation, which is not directly linked to drowsiness the next morning. Increased gastric motility (Choice D) does not commonly cause drowsiness as described in the scenario.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
- B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr.
- C. Heart rate of 92/min.
- D. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.