the client on digoxin has a potassium level of 27 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Practice Exam

1. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L is considered low and can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Administering the digoxin as ordered (Choice B) would put the client at a higher risk for toxicity. Increasing the dose of digoxin (Choice C) is not appropriate when the client's potassium level is low. Administering potassium supplements (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the priority action in this situation.

2. What is a chronic condition where the bronchial tubes in the lungs become inflamed and narrowed, often caused by smoking?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is the correct answer because it is a long-term condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the bronchial tubes in the lungs, commonly triggered by smoking. Emphysema involves damage to the air sacs in the lungs, not specifically the bronchial tubes. Asthma is a condition of reversible airway obstruction usually due to allergies or other triggers, not solely smoking. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but is not directly related to inflammation and narrowing of the bronchial tubes.

3. What is the term used to describe a condition where the blood flow to the brain is temporarily interrupted, often referred to as a 'mini-stroke'?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transient ischemic attack (TIA). A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is often called a 'mini-stroke' because it is characterized by a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain, resulting in stroke-like symptoms that typically resolve within a short period. Choice B, 'Stroke,' is incorrect because a stroke involves a more prolonged interruption of blood flow, leading to lasting brain damage. Choices C and D, 'Myocardial infarction' and 'Pulmonary embolism,' are unrelated conditions involving the heart and lungs, respectively, and do not describe a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain.

4. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client, what is the most important lab value to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox), it is crucial to monitor the platelet count because enoxaparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, which is a decrease in platelet count that can lead to increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring the platelet count allows for early detection of this potential complication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aPTT, Hemoglobin, and INR are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically when administering enoxaparin.

5. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.

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