Nursing Elites

1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 1.2. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Increase the dose of warfarin
• B. Administer vitamin K
• C. Monitor for signs of bleeding
• D. Hold the next dose and notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the dose of warfarin. An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the dose is subtherapeutic. The priority action in this situation is to adjust the dose to achieve the target therapeutic INR range (usually 2-3) to prevent thromboembolic events. Administering vitamin K is not necessary as the INR is low, and there are no signs of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority in this case since the INR is subtherapeutic. Holding the next dose and notifying the healthcare provider would delay the intervention needed to adjust the dose and achieve the therapeutic range.

2. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?

• A. ACE inhibitor
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Diuretic
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

3. What test measures the electrical activity of the heart and can detect heart rhythm problems?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. MRI
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG). An electrocardiogram is a test that measures the electrical activity of the heart and can detect irregularities in heart rhythm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a chest X-ray, MRI, and CT scan do not specifically measure the electrical activity of the heart or detect heart rhythm problems.

4. This is a more accurate indicator of tissue perfusion. It represents the cardiac output in terms of liters per minute per square meter of body surface area. Its normal range is 2.4-4 L/min.

• A. Cardiac Index
• B. Stroke volume
• C. Ejection fraction
• D. Cardiac output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac Index. Cardiac Index is a measure of cardiac output relative to body surface area, providing a more accurate assessment of tissue perfusion. It is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the body surface area. The normal range for cardiac index is 2.4-4 L/min/m². Choice B, Stroke volume, refers to the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction and is not adjusted for body surface area. Choice C, Ejection fraction, is the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart's ventricles with each contraction, not adjusted for body surface area. Choice D, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, without considering body surface area.

5. What condition involves a weakened and bulging aorta, the main artery in the body, potentially leading to rupture?

• A. Aortic aneurysm
• B. Arterial stenosis
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aortic aneurysm is a condition characterized by the weakening and bulging of the aorta, the body's main artery. If left untreated, this bulging may lead to a rupture, causing severe complications. Arterial stenosis refers to the narrowing of an artery, not the weakening and bulging seen in an aortic aneurysm. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage in the pulmonary artery, which is different from the weakening and bulging in an aortic aneurysm. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, not related to the condition described in the question.

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