Nursing Elites

1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 1.2. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Increase the dose of warfarin
• B. Administer vitamin K
• C. Monitor for signs of bleeding
• D. Hold the next dose and notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the dose of warfarin. An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the dose is subtherapeutic. The priority action in this situation is to adjust the dose to achieve the target therapeutic INR range (usually 2-3) to prevent thromboembolic events. Administering vitamin K is not necessary as the INR is low, and there are no signs of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority in this case since the INR is subtherapeutic. Holding the next dose and notifying the healthcare provider would delay the intervention needed to adjust the dose and achieve the therapeutic range.

2. The client is on dobutamine. Adverse effects of Dobutrex (dobutamine) include the following: Select all that apply.

• A. Heart failure
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Respiratory distress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Dobutamine is a medication that primarily increases heart rate (tachycardia) and blood pressure. Therefore, the adverse effects of dobutamine include tachycardia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Heart failure is not an adverse effect of dobutamine; in fact, it is used to treat heart failure by increasing heart contractility. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not an expected adverse effect of dobutamine, as it usually increases heart rate. Respiratory distress is not a common adverse effect of dobutamine.

3. The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker. What is the primary effect of this medication on the cardiovascular system?

• A. Decreases heart rate
• B. Increases heart rate
• C. Increases blood pressure
• D. Decreases blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Choice A, 'Decreases heart rate,' is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not significantly affect heart rate. Choice B, 'Increases heart rate,' is incorrect as calcium channel blockers do not have a primary effect of increasing heart rate. Choice C, 'Increases blood pressure,' is incorrect as the primary effect of calcium channel blockers is to decrease blood pressure by vasodilation.

4. This is a chronic condition where the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs.

• A. Heart failure
• B. Cardiomyopathy
• C. Myocarditis
• D. Pericarditis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. Heart failure is a chronic condition characterized by the heart's inability to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs, resulting in symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and fluid retention. Choice B, Cardiomyopathy, refers to diseases of the heart muscle that can lead to heart failure but is not the specific term for the condition described. Choices C and D, Myocarditis and Pericarditis, respectively, are conditions involving inflammation of the heart muscle or the lining around the heart, which can cause heart failure as a complication but are not the primary condition described in the question.

5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.

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