Nursing Elites

1. Where is the impulse from the SA node delayed, enabling atrial contraction to complete before the ventricles are stimulated and contract?

• A. AV node
• B. Bundle of His
• C. SA node
• D. Aorta

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is AV node. The AV node is responsible for delaying the impulse from the SA node, allowing the atria to contract before the ventricles. This delay ensures the effective pumping of blood in a coordinated manner. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Bundle of His is responsible for transmitting the impulse to the Purkinje fibers, the SA node is the pacemaker of the heart responsible for initiating the heartbeat, and the aorta is the main artery carrying oxygenated blood from the heart to the body, respectively, none of which are involved in delaying the impulse to allow atrial contraction before ventricular contraction.

2. What structures hold up the AV valves and are anchored to the ventricular wall by the papillary muscles?

• A. Chordae tendineae
• B. Papillary muscles
• C. Semilunar valves
• D. Aortic valve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chordae tendineae. Chordae tendineae are fibrous cords that connect the AV valves to the papillary muscles, preventing the valves from inverting during ventricular contraction. Papillary muscles (choice B) anchor the chordae tendineae to the ventricular wall but do not hold up the AV valves directly. Semilunar valves (choice C) are located between the ventricles and the major arteries and are not involved in holding up the AV valves. The aortic valve (choice D) is one of the semilunar valves and is not responsible for holding up the AV valves.

3. The nurse is caring for a client on digoxin. What is the most important assessment before administering this medication?

• A. Check the client’s heart rate.
• B. Check the client’s blood pressure.
• C. Check the client’s respiratory rate.
• D. Check the client’s oxygen saturation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s heart rate before administering digoxin because one of the side effects of digoxin is bradycardia. Monitoring the heart rate is crucial to assess whether the client's heart rate is within the acceptable range before giving the medication. Checking the blood pressure (Choice B), respiratory rate (Choice C), or oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important assessments in general patient care, but they are not specifically related to the administration of digoxin.

4. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

5. Which term refers to high blood pressure, a condition where the force of the blood against the artery walls is too high?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hyperlipidemia
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypertension. Hypertension is a condition characterized by persistently high blood pressure, which increases the risk of heart disease and stroke. Choice B, Hypotension, refers to low blood pressure. Choice C, Hyperlipidemia, is the term for high levels of fats in the blood. Choice D, Diabetes, is a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels.

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