Nursing Elites

1. Where is the impulse from the SA node delayed, enabling atrial contraction to complete before the ventricles are stimulated and contract?

• A. AV node
• B. Bundle of His
• C. SA node
• D. Aorta

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is AV node. The AV node is responsible for delaying the impulse from the SA node, allowing the atria to contract before the ventricles. This delay ensures the effective pumping of blood in a coordinated manner. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Bundle of His is responsible for transmitting the impulse to the Purkinje fibers, the SA node is the pacemaker of the heart responsible for initiating the heartbeat, and the aorta is the main artery carrying oxygenated blood from the heart to the body, respectively, none of which are involved in delaying the impulse to allow atrial contraction before ventricular contraction.

2. What is a condition characterized by the presence of air or gas in the pleural space, leading to the collapse of the lung?

• A. Pneumothorax
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Atelectasis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Pneumothorax. Pneumothorax occurs when air or gas accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. This condition can result in symptoms such as chest pain and difficulty breathing. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, usually caused by a blood clot. Pleural effusion (choice C) is the accumulation of excess fluid in the pleural space, not air or gas. Atelectasis (choice D) refers to the collapse or closure of a lung resulting in reduced or absent gas exchange.

3. A client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer a potassium supplement.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client on spironolactone with a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels, which are already high. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would exacerbate the hyperkalemia. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) could lead to worsening hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be contraindicated in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

4. The client is on a calcium channel blocker. What is the expected effect on the heart?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Decreased blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is on a calcium channel blocker, the expected effect on the heart is a decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers work by dilating blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload, resulting in decreased blood pressure. Choice A, increased heart rate, is incorrect as calcium channel blockers actually have a negative chronotropic effect, reducing the heart rate. Choice C, increased blood pressure, is also incorrect because these medications are used to lower blood pressure.

5. What type of stroke is caused by a blockage in an artery supplying blood to the brain?

• A. Ischemic stroke
• B. Hemorrhagic stroke
• C. Transient ischemic attack
• D. Embolism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ischemic stroke. Ischemic stroke occurs when a blood clot blocks an artery supplying blood to the brain, leading to brain damage. Choice B, Hemorrhagic stroke, is caused by bleeding in the brain, not a blockage. Choice C, Transient ischemic attack, is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain with symptoms similar to a stroke but typically lasting only a few minutes. Choice D, Embolism, refers to a blood clot or other particle that travels through the bloodstream and blocks a blood vessel.

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