ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. The client has a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin. What is the nurse's instruction for how to take this medication during an episode of chest pain?
- A. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three tablets.
- B. Take one tablet every hour until the pain subsides.
- C. Take two tablets immediately if chest pain occurs.
- D. Take one tablet with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The standard instruction for sublingual nitroglycerin during an episode of chest pain is to take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three tablets. If the pain persists after taking three tablets, the client should seek emergency help. Choice B is incorrect because taking one tablet every hour is not the appropriate dosing for acute chest pain. Choice C is incorrect as taking two tablets immediately is not in line with the recommended dosing instructions. Choice D is incorrect because sublingual nitroglycerin should be placed under the tongue, not swallowed with water.
2. The client is on amiodarone. What is the most important side effect to monitor for?
- A. Pulmonary toxicity
- B. Thyroid dysfunction
- C. Liver toxicity
- D. Renal dysfunction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary toxicity. Amiodarone is known for causing serious pulmonary toxicity, which can be fatal. Monitoring for pulmonary toxicity is crucial due to its potential severity. Choice B, thyroid dysfunction, is a common side effect of amiodarone but is not as immediately life-threatening as pulmonary toxicity. Choices C and D, liver toxicity and renal dysfunction, are potential side effects of amiodarone but are not as critical or as common as pulmonary toxicity, making them less important to monitor initially.
3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client receiving lidocaine IV. What side effect is the healthcare provider most concerned about?
- A. Severe headache
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Seizures
- D. Tremors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Seizures are the most concerning side effect of lidocaine IV administration due to its potential to indicate lidocaine toxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular collapse. Headache, nausea, and tremors are not typically associated with lidocaine IV and are less concerning compared to seizures in this context.
4. The client is on a calcium channel blocker. What is the expected effect on the heart?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Decreased heart rate
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is on a calcium channel blocker, the expected effect on the heart is a decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers work by dilating blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload, resulting in decreased blood pressure. Choice A, increased heart rate, is incorrect as calcium channel blockers actually have a negative chronotropic effect, reducing the heart rate. Choice C, increased blood pressure, is also incorrect because these medications are used to lower blood pressure.
5. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?
- A. Foods high in potassium
- B. Foods high in sodium
- C. Foods high in calcium
- D. Foods high in chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.
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